Joint Committee Report JCS-1-16: General Explanation of Tax Legislation Enacted in the 114th Congress

Effective for years beginning after December 31, 2017, an excise tax is imposed on the provider of applicable employer-sponsored health coverage (the "coverage provider") if the aggregate cost of the coverage for an employee (including a former employee, surviving spouse, or any other primary insured individual) exceeds a threshold amount (referred to as "high cost health coverage").³⁰⁹ The tax is 40 percent of the amount by which aggregate cost exceeds the threshold amount (the "excess benefit").

The annual threshold amount for 2018 is $10,200 for self-only coverage and $27,500 for other coverage (such as family coverage), multiplied by a one-time health cost adjustment percentage.³¹⁰ This threshold is then adjusted annually (including for 2018) by an age and gender adjusted excess premium amount.³¹¹ The age and gender adjusted excess premium amount is the excess, if any, of (1) the premium cost of standard FEHBP coverage for the type of coverage provided to an individual if priced for the age and gender characteristics of all employees of the employer, over (2) the premium cost of standard FEHBP coverage if priced for the age and gender characteristics of the national workforce. For this purpose, standard FEHBP coverage means the per employee cost of Blue Cross/Blue Shield standard benefit coverage under the Federal Employees Health Benefit Program.

The excise tax is determined on a monthly basis, by reference to the aggregate cost of applicable employer-sponsored coverage for the month and 1/12 of the annual threshold amount. The excise tax is not deductible for income tax purposes.³¹²

Applicable employer-sponsored coverage and determination of cost

Subject to certain exceptions, applicable employer-sponsored coverage is coverage under any group health plan offered to an employee by an employer that is excludible from the employee's gross income or that would be excludible if it were employer-sponsored coverage.³¹³ Thus, applicable employer-sponsored coverage includes coverage for which an employee pays on an after-tax basis. Applicable employer-sponsored coverage includes coverage under any group health plan established and maintained primarily for its civilian employees by the Federal government or any Federal agency or instrumentality, or the government of any State or political subdivision thereof or any agency or instrumentality of a State or political subdivision.

Applicable employer-sponsored coverage includes both insured and self-insured health coverage, including coverage in the form of reimbursements under a health flexible spending arrangement ("health FSA") or a health reimbursement arrangement and contributions to a health savings account ("HSA") or Archer medical savings account ("Archer MSA").³¹⁴ In the case of a self-employed individual, coverage is treated as applicable employer-sponsored coverage if the self-employed individual is allowed a deduction for all or any portion of the cost of coverage.³¹⁵

For purposes of the excise tax, the cost of applicable employer-sponsored coverage is generally determined under rules similar to the rules for determining the applicable premium for purposes of COBRA continuation coverage,³¹⁶ except that any portion of the cost of coverage attributable to the excise tax is not taken into account. Cost is determined separately for self-only coverage and other coverage. Special valuation rules apply to certain retiree coverage, health FSAs, and contributions to HSAs and Archer MSAs.

Calculation of excess benefit and imposition of excise tax

In determining the excess benefit with respect to an employee (i.e., the amount by which the cost of applicable employer-sponsored coverage for the employee exceeds the threshold amount), the aggregate cost of all applicable employer-sponsored coverage of the employee is taken into account. The threshold amount for self-only coverage generally applies to an employee. The threshold amount for other coverage applies to an employee only if the coverage provides minimum essential coverage to the employee and at least one other beneficiary and the benefits provided do not vary based on whether the covered individual is the employee or other beneficiary. For purposes of the threshold amount, any coverage provided under a multiemployer plan is treated as coverage other than self-only coverage.³¹⁷

The excise tax is imposed on the coverage provider.³¹⁸ In the case of insured coverage (i.e., coverage under a policy, certificate, or contract issued by an insurance company), the health insurance issuer is liable for the excise tax. In the case of self-insured coverage, the person that administers the plan benefits ("plan administrator") is generally liable for the excise tax. The person that administers the plan benefits includes the plan sponsor if the plan sponsor administers benefits under the plan. In the case of employer contributions to an HSA or an Archer MSA, the employer is liable for the excise tax.

The employer is generally responsible for calculating the amount of excess benefit allocable to each coverage provider and notifying each coverage provider (and the IRS) of the coverage provider's allocable share. In the case of applicable employer-sponsored coverage under a multiemployer plan, the plan sponsor is responsible for the calculation and notification.³¹⁹

The Act includes two provisions that make changes with respect to this excise tax. One provision delays the effective date for the excise tax until years beginning after December 31, 2019, thereby delaying by two years (from 2018 to 2020) the year when the excise tax first becomes effective. However, the provision retains the 2018 threshold amount and provides the same adjustments to that amount for purposes of determining the threshold amounts for 2020 and subsequent years, and adjustments thereto. Thus, the threshold amounts that apply in 2020 and subsequent years include the same cost-of-living adjustments to the 2018 threshold amounts that apply under present law.

The other provision eliminates the denial of the deduction of the excise tax for income tax purposes.³²⁰

GAO study of suitable benchmarks for age and gender adjustment

The Act includes a provision that directs the Government Accountability Office to report to the Committee on Finance of the Senate and the Committee on Ways and Means of the House on (1) the suitability of the use of the premium cost of standard FEHBP coverage as a benchmark for the age and gender adjustment of the applicable dollar limit with respect to the excise tax and (2) recommendations regarding any more suitable benchmarks for the age and gender adjustment. The report is to be provided not later than 18 months after the date of enactment (December 18, 2015) and to be prepared in consultation with the National Association of Insurance Commissioners.

The aggregate annual fee is apportioned among the providers based on a ratio designed to reflect relative market share of U.S. health insurance business. For each covered entity, the fee for a calendar year is an amount that bears the same ratio to the applicable amount as (1) the covered entity's net premiums written during the preceding calendar year with respect to health insurance for any U.S. health risk, bears to (2) the aggregate net written premiums of all covered entities during such preceding calendar year with respect to such health insurance.

An income tax credit is allowed for the production of electricity from qualified energy resources at qualified facilities (the "renewable electricity production credit").³²⁴ Qualified energy resources comprise wind, closed-loop biomass, open-loop biomass, geothermal energy, municipal solid waste, qualified hydropower production, and marine and hydrokinetic renewable energy. Qualified facilities are, generally, facilities that generate electricity using qualified energy resources. To be eligible for the credit, electricity produced from qualified energy resources at qualified facilities must be sold by the taxpayer to an unrelated person.

                SUMMARY OF CREDIT FOR ELECTRICITY PRODUCED FROM

A taxpayer may make an irrevocable election to have certain property which is part of a qualified renewable electricity production facility be treated as energy property eligible for a 30 percent investment credit under section 48. For this purpose, qualified facilities are facilities otherwise eligible for the renewable electricity production credit with respect to which no credit under section 45 has been allowed. A taxpayer electing to treat a facility as energy property may not claim the renewable electricity production credit. The eligible basis for the investment credit for taxpayers making this election is the basis of the depreciable (or amortizable) property that is part of a facility capable of generating electricity eligible for the renewable electricity production credit.

2. Modification of energy investment credit (sec. 303 of the Act and sec. 48 of the Code)

A nonrefundable, 10-percent business energy credit³²⁵ is allowed for the cost of new property that is equipment that either (1) uses solar energy to generate electricity, to heat or cool a structure, or to provide solar process heat or (2) is used to produce, distribute, or use energy derived from a geothermal deposit, but only, in the case of electricity generated by geothermal power, up to the electric transmission stage. Property used to generate energy for the purposes of heating a swimming pool is not eligible solar energy property.

The energy credit is a component of the general business credit.³²⁶ An unused general business credit generally may be carried back one year and carried forward 20 years.³²⁷ The taxpayer's basis in the property is reduced by one-half of the amount of the credit claimed. For projects whose construction time is expected to equal or exceed two years, the credit may be claimed as progress expenditures are made on the project, rather than during the year the property is placed in service. The credit is allowed against the alternative minimum tax.

Special rules for solar energy property

For periods prior to January 1, 2017, the credit for otherwise eligible solar energy property is increased to 30 percent. In addition, equipment that uses fiber-optic distributed sunlight to illuminate the inside of a structure is solar energy property eligible for the 30-percent credit. For periods after December 31, 2016, the credit rate reverts to 10 percent and fiber optic property no longer qualifies.

Fuel cells and microturbines

The energy credit applies to qualified fuel cell power plants, but only for periods prior to January 1, 2017. The credit rate is 30 percent.

A qualified fuel cell power plant is an integrated system composed of a fuel cell stack assembly and associated balance of plant components that (1) converts a fuel into electricity using electro-chemical means, and (2) has an electricity-only generation efficiency of greater than 30 percent and a capacity of at least one-half kilowatt. The credit may not exceed $1,500 for each 0.5 kilowatt of capacity.

The energy credit applies to qualifying stationary microturbine power plants for periods prior to January 1, 2017. The credit is limited to the lesser of 10 percent of the basis of the property or $200 for each kilowatt of capacity.

A qualified stationary microturbine power plant is an integrated system comprised of a gas turbine engine, a combustor, a recuperator or regenerator, a generator or alternator, and associated balance of plant components that converts a fuel into electricity and thermal energy. Such system also includes all secondary components located between the existing infrastructure for fuel delivery and the existing infrastructure for power distribution, including equipment and controls for meeting relevant power standards, such as voltage, frequency and power factors. Such system must have an electricity-only generation efficiency of not less than 26 percent at International Standard Organization conditions and a capacity of less than 2,000 kilowatts.

Geothermal heat pump property

The energy credit applies to qualified geothermal heat pump property placed in service prior to January 1, 2017. The credit rate is 10 percent. Qualified geothermal heat pump property is equipment that uses the ground or ground water as a thermal energy source to heat a structure or as a thermal energy sink to cool a structure.

Small wind property

The energy credit applies to qualified small wind energy property placed in service prior to January 1, 2017. The credit rate is 30 percent. Qualified small wind energy property is property that uses a qualified wind turbine to generate electricity. A qualifying wind turbine means a wind turbine of 100 kilowatts of rated capacity or less.

Combined heat and power property

The energy credit applies to combined heat and power ("CHP") property placed in service prior to January 1, 2017. The credit rate is 10 percent.

CHP property is property: (1) that uses the same energy source for the simultaneous or sequential generation of electrical power, mechanical shaft power, or both, in combination with the generation of steam or other forms of useful thermal energy (including heating and cooling applications); (2) that has an electrical capacity of not more than 50 megawatts or a mechanical energy capacity of not more than 67,000 horsepower or an equivalent combination of electrical and mechanical energy capacities; (3) that produces at least 20 percent of its total useful energy in the form of thermal energy that is not used to produce electrical or mechanical power, and produces at least 20 percent of its total useful energy in the form of electrical or mechanical power (or a combination thereof); and (4) the energy efficiency percentage of which exceeds 60 percent. CHP property does not include property used to transport the energy source to the generating facility or to distribute energy produced by the facility.

The otherwise allowable credit with respect to CHP property is reduced to the extent the property has an electrical capacity or mechanical capacity in excess of any applicable limits. Property in excess of the applicable limit (15 megawatts or a mechanical energy capacity of more than 20,000 horsepower or an equivalent combination of electrical and mechanical energy capacities) is permitted to claim a fraction of the otherwise allowable credit. The fraction is equal to the applicable limit divided by the capacity of the property. For example, a 45 megawatt property would be eligible to claim 15/45ths, or one third, of the otherwise allowable credit. Again, no credit is allowed if the property exceeds the 50 megawatt or 67,000 horsepower limitations described above.

Additionally, systems whose fuel source is at least 90 percent open-loop biomass and that would qualify for the credit but for the failure to meet the efficiency standard are eligible for a credit that is reduced in proportion to the degree to which the system fails to meet the efficiency standard. For example, a system that would otherwise be required to meet the 60-percent efficiency standard, but which only achieves 30-percent efficiency, would be permitted a credit equal to one-half of the otherwise allowable credit (i.e., a 5-percent credit).

Election of energy credit in lieu of section 45 production tax credit

A taxpayer may make an irrevocable election to have certain qualified facilities placed in service after 2008 and whose construction begins before January 1, 2015, be treated as energy property eligible for a 30-percent investment credit under section 48.³²⁸ For this purpose, qualified facilities are facilities otherwise eligible for the renewable electricity production tax credit with respect to which no credit under section 45 has been allowed. A taxpayer electing to treat a facility as energy property may not claim the production credit under section 45.

3. Credit for residential energy efficient property (section 304 of the Act and 25D of the Code)

Present law (sec. 25D) provides a personal tax credit for the purchase of qualified solar electric property and qualified solar water heating property that is used exclusively for purposes other than heating swimming pools and hot tubs. The credit is equal to 30 percent of qualifying expenditures.

Section 25D also provides a 30 percent credit for the purchase of qualified geothermal heat pump property, qualified small wind energy property, and qualified fuel cell power plants. The credit for any fuel cell may not exceed $500 for each 0.5 kilowatt of capacity.

The credit is nonrefundable. The credit with respect to all qualifying property may be claimed against the alternative minimum tax.

The credit applies to property placed in service prior to January 1, 2017.

Qualified property

Qualified solar electric property is property that uses solar energy to generate electricity for use in a dwelling unit. Qualifying solar water heating property is property used to heat water for use in a dwelling unit located in the United States and used as a residence if at least half of the energy used by such property for such purpose is derived from the sun.

A qualified fuel cell power plant is an integrated system comprised of a fuel cell stack assembly and associated balance of plant components that (1) converts a fuel into electricity using electro-chemical means, (2) has an electricity-only generation efficiency of greater than 30 percent, and (3) has a nameplate capacity of at least 0.5 kilowatt. The qualified fuel cell power plant must be installed on or in connection with a dwelling unit located in the United States and used by the taxpayer as a principal residence.

Qualified small wind energy property is property that uses a wind turbine to generate electricity for use in a dwelling unit located in the U.S. and used as a residence by the taxpayer.

Qualified geothermal heat pump property means any equipment which (1) uses the ground or ground water as a thermal energy source to heat the dwelling unit or as a thermal energy sink to cool such dwelling unit, (2) meets the requirements of the Energy Star program which are in effect at the time that the expenditure for such equipment is made, and (3) is installed on or in connection with a dwelling unit located in the United States and used as a residence by the taxpayer.

Additional rules

The depreciable basis of the property is reduced by the amount of the credit. Expenditures for labor costs allocable to onsite preparation, assembly, or original installation of property eligible for the credit are eligible expenditures.

Special proration rules apply in the case of jointly owned property, condominiums, and tenant-stockholders in cooperative housing corporations. If less than 80 percent of the property is used for nonbusiness purposes, only that portion of expenditures that is used for nonbusiness purposes is taken into account.

4. Treatment of transportation costs of independent refiners (sec. 305 of the Act and sec. 199 of the Code)

Present law provides a deduction from taxable income (or, in the case of an individual, adjusted gross income³²⁹) that is equal to nine percent of the lesser of the taxpayer's qualified production activities income or taxable income (determined without regard to the section 199 deduction) for the taxable year.³³⁰ For taxpayers subject to the 35-percent corporate income tax rate, the nine-percent deduction effectively reduces the corporate income tax rate to just under 32 percent on qualified production activities income.³³¹

In general, qualified production activities income is equal to domestic production gross receipts reduced by the sum of: (1) the costs of goods sold that are allocable to those receipts; and (2) other expenses, losses, or deductions which are properly allocable to those receipts.³³²

Domestic production gross receipts generally are gross receipts of a taxpayer that are derived from: (1) any sale, exchange, or other disposition, or any lease, rental, or license, of qualifying production property³³³ that was manufactured, produced, grown or extracted by the taxpayer in whole or in significant part within the United States;³³⁴ (2) any sale, exchange, or other disposition, or any lease, rental, or license, of qualified film³³⁵ produced by the taxpayer; (3) any lease, rental, license, sale, exchange, or other disposition of electricity, natural gas, or potable water produced by the taxpayer in the United States; (4) construction of real property performed in the United States by a taxpayer in the ordinary course of a construction trade or business; or (5) engineering or architectural services performed in the United States for the construction of real property located in the United States.³³⁶

The amount of the deduction for a taxable year is limited to 50 percent of the W-2 wages paid by the taxpayer, and properly allocable to domestic production gross receipts, during the calendar year that ends in such taxable year.³³⁷

Limitation for oil related qualified production activities income

With respect to a taxpayer that has oil related qualified production activities income, the nine percent deduction is reduced by three percent of the least of the taxpayer's oil related qualified production activities income, qualified production activities income, or taxable income (determined without regard to the section 199 deduction).³³⁸ The term "oil related qualified production activities income" means the qualified production activities income attributable to the production, refining, processing, transportation, or distribution of oil, gas, or any primary product thereof (as defined in section 927(a)(2)(C) prior to its repeal).³³⁹

An individual may claim a tax credit of $1,000 for each qualifying child under the age of 17. A child who is not a citizen, national, or resident of the United States cannot be a qualifying child.

The aggregate amount of child credits that may be claimed is phased out for individuals with income over certain threshold amounts. Specifically, the otherwise allowable aggregate child tax credit amount is reduced by $50 for each $1,000 (or fraction thereof) of modified adjusted gross income ("modified AGI") over $75,000 for single individuals or heads of households, $110,000 for married individuals filing joint returns, and $55,000 for married individuals filing separate returns. For purposes of this limitation, modified AGI includes certain otherwise excludable income earned by U.S. citizens or residents living abroad or in certain U.S. territories.

The credit is allowable against both the regular tax and the alternative minimum tax ("AMT"). To the extent the child tax credit exceeds the taxpayer's tax liability, the taxpayer is eligible for a refundable credit (the additional child tax credit) equal to 15 percent of earned income in excess of a threshold dollar amount (the "earned income" formula). This threshold dollar amount is $10,000 indexed for inflation from 2001. The American Recovery and Reinvestment Act, as subsequently extended by the Tax Relief, Unemployment Insurance Reauthorization, and Job Creation Act of 2010³⁴² and the American Taxpayer Relief Act of 2012,³⁴³ set the threshold at $3,000 for taxable years 2009 to 2017.

Families with three or more qualifying children may determine the additional child tax credit using the "alternative formula" if this results in a larger credit than determined under the earned income formula. Under the alternative formula, the additional child tax credit equals the amount by which the taxpayer's social security taxes exceed the taxpayer's earned income tax credit ("EITC").

Earned income is defined as the sum of wages, salaries, tips, and other taxable employee compensation plus net self-employment earnings. Unlike the EITC, which also includes the preceding items in its definition of earned income, the additional child tax credit is based only on earned income to the extent it is included in computing taxable income. For example, some ministers' parsonage allowances are considered self-employment income, and thus are considered earned income for purposes of computing the EITC, but the allowances are excluded from gross income for individual income tax purposes, and thus are not considered earned income for purposes of the additional child tax credit since the income is not included in taxable income.

2. American opportunity tax credit made permanent (sec. 102 of the Act and sec. 25A of the Code)

Hope credit

For taxable years beginning before 2009 and after 2017, individual taxpayers are allowed to claim a nonrefundable credit, the Hope credit, against Federal income taxes of up to $1,950 (estimated 2015 level) per eligible student per year for qualified tuition and related expenses paid for the first two years of the student's post-secondary education in a degree or certificate program.³⁴⁴ The Hope credit rate is 100 percent on the first $1,300 of qualified tuition and related expenses, and 50 percent on the next $1,300 of qualified tuition and related expenses (estimated for 2015). These dollar amounts are indexed for inflation, with the amount rounded down to the next lowest multiple of $100. Thus, for example, a taxpayer who incurs $1,300 of qualified tuition and related expenses for an eligible student is eligible (subject to the AGI phaseout described below) for a $1,300 Hope credit. If a taxpayer incurs $2,600 of qualified tuition and related expenses for an eligible student, then he or she is eligible for a $1,950 Hope credit.

The Hope credit that a taxpayer may otherwise claim is phased out ratably for taxpayers with modified AGI between $55,000 and $65,000 ($110,000 and $130,000 for married taxpayers filing a joint return), as estimated by the JCT staff for 2015. The beginning points of the AGI phaseout ranges are indexed for inflation, with the amount rounded down to the next lowest multiple of $1,000. The size of the phaseout ranges for single and married taxpayers are always $10,000 and $20,000 respectively.

The qualified tuition and related expenses must be incurred on behalf of the taxpayer, the taxpayer's spouse, or a dependent of the taxpayer. The Hope credit is available with respect to an individual student for two taxable years, provided that the student has not completed the first two years of post-secondary education before the beginning of the second taxable year.

The Hope credit is available in the taxable year the expenses are paid, subject to the requirement that the education is furnished to the student during that year or during an academic period beginning during the first three months of the next taxable year. Qualified tuition and related expenses paid with the proceeds of a loan generally are eligible for the Hope credit. The repayment of a loan itself is not a qualified tuition or related expense.

A taxpayer may claim the Hope credit with respect to an eligible student who is not the taxpayer or the taxpayer's spouse (e.g., in cases in which the student is the taxpayer's child) only if the taxpayer claims the student as a dependent for the taxable year for which the credit is claimed. If a student is claimed as a dependent, the student is not entitled to claim a Hope credit for that taxable year on the student's own tax return. If a parent (or other taxpayer) claims a student as a dependent, any qualified tuition and related expenses paid by the student are treated as paid by the parent (or other taxpayer) for purposes of determining the amount of qualified tuition and related expenses paid by such parent (or other taxpayer) under the provision. In addition, for each taxable year, a taxpayer may claim only one of the Hope credit, the Lifetime Learning credit, or an above-the-line deduction for qualified tuition and related expenses with respect to an eligible student.

The Hope credit is available for qualified tuition and related expenses, which include tuition and fees (excluding nonacademic fees) required to be paid to an eligible educational institution as a condition of enrollment or attendance of an eligible student at the institution. Charges and fees associated with meals, lodging, insurance, transportation, and similar personal, living, or family expenses are not eligible for the credit. The expenses of education involving sports, games, or hobbies are not qualified tuition and related expenses unless this education is part of the student's degree program.

Qualified tuition and related expenses generally include only out-of-pocket expenses. Qualified tuition and related expenses do not include expenses covered by employer-provided educational assistance and scholarships that are not required to be included in the gross income of either the student or the taxpayer claiming the credit. Thus, total qualified tuition and related expenses are reduced by any scholarship or fellowship grants excludable from gross income under section 117 and any other tax-free educational benefits received by the student (or the taxpayer claiming the credit) during the taxable year. The Hope credit is not allowed with respect to any education expense for which a deduction is claimed under section 162 or any other section of the Code.

An eligible student for purposes of the Hope credit is an individual who is enrolled in a degree, certificate, or other program (including a program of study abroad approved for credit by the institution at which such student is enrolled) leading to a recognized educational credential at an eligible educational institution. The student must pursue a course of study on at least a half-time basis. A student is considered to pursue a course of study on at least a half-time basis if the student carries at least one-half the normal full-time work load for the course of study the student is pursuing for at least one academic period that begins during the taxable year. To be eligible for the Hope credit, a student must not have been convicted of a Federal or State felony for the possession or distribution of a controlled substance.

Eligible educational institutions generally are accredited post-secondary educational institutions offering credit toward a bachelor's degree, an associate's degree, or another recognized post-secondary credential. Certain proprietary institutions and post-secondary vocational institutions also are eligible educational institutions. To qualify as an eligible educational institution, an institution must be eligible to participate in Department of Education student aid programs.

American Opportunity tax credit ("AOTC")

The AOTC refers to modifications to the Hope credit that apply for taxable years beginning in 2009 through 2017. The maximum allowable modified credit is $2,500 per eligible student per year for qualified tuition and related expenses paid for each of the first four years of the student's post-secondary education in a degree or certificate program. The modified credit rate is 100 percent on the first $2,000 of qualified tuition and related expenses, and 25 percent on the next $2,000 of qualified tuition and related expenses. For purposes of the modified credit, the definition of qualified tuition and related expenses is expanded to include course materials.

The modified credit is available with respect to an individual student for four years, provided that the student has not completed the first four years of post-secondary education before the beginning of the fourth taxable year. Thus, the modified credit, in addition to other modifications, extends the application of the Hope credit to two more years of post-secondary education.

The modified credit that a taxpayer may otherwise claim is phased out ratably for taxpayers with modified AGI between $80,000 and $90,000 ($160,000 and $180,000 for married taxpayers filing a joint return). The modified credit may be claimed against a taxpayer's AMT liability.

Forty percent of a taxpayer's otherwise allowable modified credit is refundable. However, no portion of the modified credit is refundable if the taxpayer claiming the credit is a child to whom section 1(g) applies for such taxable year (generally, any child who has at least one living parent, does not file a joint return, and is either under age 18 or under age 24 and a student providing less than one-half of his or her own support).

3. Modification of the earned income tax credit made permanent (sec. 103 of the Act and sec. 32 of the Code)

Low- and moderate-income workers may be eligible for the refundable earned income tax credit ("EITC"). Eligibility for the EITC is based on earned income, adjusted gross income ("AGI"), investment income, filing status, number of children, and immigration and work status in the United States. The amount of the EITC is based on the presence and number of qualifying children in the worker's family, as well as on adjusted gross income and earned income.

The EITC generally equals a specified percentage of earned income up to a maximum dollar amount. The maximum amount applies over a certain income range and then diminishes to zero over a specified phaseout range. For taxpayers with earned income (or AGI, if greater) in excess of the beginning of the phaseout range, the maximum EITC amount is reduced by the phaseout rate multiplied by the amount of earned income (or AGI, if greater) in excess of the beginning of the phaseout range. For taxpayers with earned income (or AGI, if greater) in excess of the end of the phaseout range, no credit is allowed.

An individual is not eligible for the EITC if the aggregate amount of disqualified income of the taxpayer for the taxable year exceeds $3,400 (for 2015). This threshold is indexed for inflation. Disqualified income is the sum of: (1) interest (both taxable and tax exempt); (2) dividends; (3) net rent and royalty income (if greater than zero); (4) capital gains net income; and (5) net passive income that is not self-employment income (if greater than zero).

The EITC is a refundable credit, meaning that if the amount of the credit exceeds the taxpayer's Federal income tax liability, the excess is payable to the taxpayer as a direct transfer payment.

Filing status

An unmarried individual may claim the EITC if he or she files as a single filer or as a head of household. Married individuals generally may not claim the EITC unless they file jointly. An exception to the joint return filing requirement applies to certain spouses who are separated. Under this exception, a married taxpayer who is separated from his or her spouse for the last six months of the taxable year is not considered to be married (and, accordingly, may file a return as head of household and claim the EITC), provided that the taxpayer maintains a household that constitutes the principal place of abode for a dependent child (including a son, stepson, daughter, stepdaughter, adopted child, or a foster child) for over half the taxable year, and pays over half the cost of maintaining the household in which he or she resides with the child during the year.

Presence of qualifying children and amount of the earned income credit

Four separate credit schedules apply: one schedule for taxpayers with no qualifying children, one schedule for taxpayers with one qualifying child, one schedule for taxpayers with two qualifying children, and one schedule for taxpayers with three or more qualifying children.³⁴⁵

Taxpayers with no qualifying children may claim a credit if they are over age 24 and below age 65. The credit is 7.65 percent of earnings up to $6,580, resulting in a maximum credit of $503 for 2015. The maximum is available for those with incomes between $6,580 and $8,240 ($13,750 if married filing jointly). The credit begins to phase out at a rate of 7.65 percent of earnings above $8,240 ($13,750 if married filing jointly) resulting in a $0 credit at $14,820 of earnings ($20,330 if married filing jointly).

Taxpayers with one qualifying child may claim a credit in 2015 of 34 percent of their earnings up to $9,880, resulting in a maximum credit of $3,359. The maximum credit is available for those with earnings between $9,880 and $18,110 ($23,630 if married filing jointly). The credit begins to phase out at a rate of 15.98 percent of earnings above $18,110 ($23,630 if married filing jointly). The credit is completely phased out at $39,131 of earnings ($44,651 if married filing jointly).

Taxpayers with two qualifying children may claim a credit in 2015 of 40 percent of earnings up to $13,870, resulting in a maximum credit of $5,548. The maximum credit is available for those with earnings between $13,870 and $18,110 ($23,630 if married filing jointly). The credit begins to phase out at a rate of 21.06 percent of earnings $18,110 ($23,630 if married filing jointly). The credit is completely phased out at $44,454 of earnings ($49,974 if married filing jointly).

A temporary provision most recently extended in the American Taxpayer Relief Act of 2012 ("ATRA")³⁴⁶ allows taxpayers with three or more qualifying children to claim a credit of 45 percent for taxable years through 2017. For example, in 2015 taxpayers with three or more qualifying children may claim a credit of 45 percent of earnings up to $13,870, resulting in a maximum credit of $6,242. The maximum credit is available for those with earnings between $13,870 and $18,110 ($23,630 if married filing jointly). The credit begins to phase out at a rate of 21.06 percent of earnings above $18,110 ($23,630 if married filing jointly). The credit is completely phased out at $47,747 of earnings ($53,267 if married filing jointly).

Under an additional provision most recently extended in ATRA, the phase-out thresholds for married couples were raised to an amount $5,000 (indexed for inflation from 2009) above that for other filers. The increase is $5,520 for 2015. This increase is reflected in the description of the credit, above.

If more than one taxpayer lives with a qualifying child, only one of these taxpayers may claim the child for purposes of the EITC. If multiple eligible taxpayers actually claim the same qualifying child, then a tiebreaker rule determines which taxpayer is entitled to the EITC with respect to the qualifying child. Any eligible taxpayer with at least one qualifying child who does not claim the EITC with respect to qualifying children due to failure to meet certain identification requirements with respect to such children (i.e., providing the name, age and taxpayer identification number of each of such children) may not claim the EITC for taxpayers without qualifying children.

The provision makes permanent the higher phase-out thresholds for married couples filing joint returns.

4. Extension and modification of deduction for certain expenses of elementary and secondary school teachers (sec. 104 of the Act and sec. 62(a)(2)(D) of the Code)

Certain expenses of eligible educators are allowed as an above-the-line deduction. Specifically, for taxable years beginning prior to January 1, 2015, an above-the-line deduction is allowed for up to $250 annually of expenses paid or incurred by an eligible educator for books, supplies (other than nonathletic supplies for courses of instruction in health or physical education), computer equipment (including related software and services) and other equipment, and supplementary materials used by the eligible educator in the classroom.³⁴⁷ To be eligible for this deduction, the expenses must be otherwise deductible under section 162 as a trade or business expense. A deduction is allowed only to the extent the amount of expenses exceeds the amount excludable from income under section 135 (relating to education savings bonds), 529(c)(1) (relating to qualified tuition programs), and section 530(d)(2) (relating to Coverdell education savings accounts).

An eligible educator is a kindergarten through grade twelve teacher, instructor, counselor, principal, or aide in a school for at least 900 hours during a school year. A school means any school that provides elementary education or secondary education (kindergarten through grade 12), as determined under State law.

The above-the-line deduction for eligible educators is not allowed for taxable years beginning after December 31, 2014.

The provision indexes the $250 maximum deduction amount for inflation, and provides that expenses for professional development shall also be considered eligible expenses for purposes of the deduction.

The provisions pertaining to indexing the $250 maximum deduction amount and qualifying professional development expenses apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2015.

5. Extension of parity for exclusion from income for employer-provided mass transit and parking benefits (sec. 105 of the Act and 132(f) of the Code)

Qualified transportation fringe benefits provided by an employer are excluded from an employee's gross income for income tax purposes and from an employee's wages for employment tax purposes.³⁴⁸ Qualified transportation fringe benefits include qualified parking, transit passes, vanpool benefits, and qualified bicycle commuting reimbursements.

No amount is includible in the income of an employee merely because the employer offers the employee a choice between cash and qualified transportation fringe benefits (other than a qualified bicycle commuting reimbursement).

Qualified transportation fringe benefits also include a cash reimbursement (under a bona fide reimbursement arrangement) by an employer to an employee for parking, transit passes, or vanpooling. In the case of transit passes, however, in general, a cash reimbursement is considered a qualified transportation fringe benefit only if a voucher or similar item that can be exchanged only for a transit pass is not readily available for direct distribution by the employer to the employee.

Mass transit parity

Before February 17, 2009, the amount that could be excluded as qualified transportation fringe benefits was subject to a monthly limit of $175 for qualified parking benefits and $100 for combined transit pass and vanpool benefits, with each monthly limit adjusted annually for inflation, rounded down to the next lowest multiple of $5.00.³⁴⁹ Effective for months beginning on or after February 17, 2009, and before January 1, 2015, parity in qualified transportation fringe benefits was provided by temporarily increasing the monthly exclusion for combined employer-provided transit pass and vanpool benefits to the same level as the monthly exclusion for employer-provided parking.³⁵⁰

As of January 1, 2015, a lower monthly limit again applies to the exclusion for combined transit pass and vanpool benefits. Specifically, for 2015, the amount that can be excluded as qualified transportation fringe benefits is limited to $130 per month in combined transit pass and vanpool benefits and $250 per month in qualified parking benefits. For 2016, the monthly exclusion limit for combined transit pass and vanpool benefits remains at $130; the monthly exclusion limit for qualified parking benefits increases to $255.

In order for the extension to be effective retroactive to January 1, 2015, expenses incurred for months beginning after December 31, 2014, and before the date of enactment of the provision (December 18, 2015), by an employee for employer-provided vanpool and transit benefits may be reimbursed (under a bona fide reimbursement arrangement) by employers on a tax-free basis to the extent they exceed $130 per month and are no more than $250 per month. It is intended that the rule that an employer reimbursement is excludible only if vouchers are not available to provide the benefit continues to apply, except in the case of reimbursements for van-pool or transit benefits between $130 and $250 for months beginning after December 31, 2014, and before enactment of the provision. Further, it is intended that reimbursements of the additional amount for expenses incurred for months beginning after December 31, 2014, and before enactment of the provision, may be made in addition to the provision of benefits or reimbursements of up to the applicable monthly limit for expenses incurred for months beginning after enactment of the provision.

6. Deduction for State and local sales taxes (sec. 106 of the Act and sec. 164 of the Code)

A general sales tax is a tax imposed at one rate with respect to the sale at retail of a broad range of classes of items.³⁵² No deduction is allowed for any general sales tax imposed with respect to an item at a rate other than the general rate of tax. However, in the case of food, clothing, medical supplies, and motor vehicles, the above rules are relaxed in two ways. First, if the tax does not apply with respect to some or all of such items, a tax that applies to other such items can still be considered a general sales tax. Second, the rate of tax applicable with respect to some or all of these items may be lower than the general rate. However, in the case of motor vehicles, if the rate of tax exceeds the general rate, such excess is disregarded and the general rate is treated as the rate of tax.

A compensating use tax with respect to an item is treated as a general sales tax, provided such tax is complementary to a general sales tax and a deduction for sales taxes is allowable with respect to items sold at retail in the taxing jurisdiction that are similar to such item.

In general, a deduction is permitted for charitable contributions, subject to certain limitations that depend on the type of taxpayer, the property contributed, and the donee organization. The amount of deduction generally equals the fair market value of the contributed property on the date of the contribution. Charitable deductions are provided for income, estate, and gift tax purposes.³⁵³

In general, in any taxable year, charitable contributions by a corporation are not deductible to the extent the aggregate contributions exceed ten percent of the corporation's taxable income computed without regard to net operating or capital loss carrybacks. Total deductible contributions of an individual taxpayer to public charities, private operating foundations, and certain types of private nonoperating foundations generally may not exceed 50 percent of the taxpayer's contribution base, which is the taxpayer's adjusted gross income for a taxable year (disregarding any net operating loss carryback). To the extent a taxpayer has not exceeded the 50-percent limitation, (1) contributions of capital gain property to public charities generally may be deducted up to 30 percent of the taxpayer's contribution base, (2) contributions of cash to most private nonoperating foundations and certain other charitable organizations generally may be deducted up to 30 percent of the taxpayer's contribution base, and (3) contributions of capital gain property to private foundations and certain other charitable organizations generally may be deducted up to 20 percent of the taxpayer's contribution base.

Contributions in excess of the applicable percentage limits generally may be carried over and deducted over the next five taxable years, subject to the relevant percentage limitations on the deduction in each of those years.

Capital gain property

Capital gain property means any capital asset or property used in the taxpayer's trade or business the sale of which at its fair market value, at the time of contribution, would have resulted in gain that would have been long-term capital gain. Contributions of capital gain property to a qualified charity are deductible at fair market value within certain limitations. Contributions of capital gain property to charitable organizations described in section 170(b)(1)(A) (e.g., public charities, private foundations other than private non-operating foundations, and certain governmental units) generally are deductible up to 30 percent of the taxpayer's contribution base. An individual may elect, however, to bring all these contributions of capital gain property for a taxable year within the 50-percent limitation category by reducing the amount of the contribution deduction by the amount of the appreciation in the capital gain property. Contributions of capital gain property to charitable organizations described in section 170(b)(1)(B) (e.g., private non-operating foundations) are deductible up to 20 percent of the taxpayer's contribution base.

For purposes of determining whether a taxpayer's aggregate charitable contributions in a taxable year exceed the applicable percentage limitation, contributions of capital gain property are taken into account after other charitable contributions.

Qualified conservation contributions

Qualified conservation contributions are one exception to the "partial interest" rule, which generally bars deductions for charitable contributions of partial interests in property.³⁵⁴ A qualified conservation contribution is a contribution of a qualified real property interest to a qualified organization exclusively for conservation purposes. A qualified real property interest is defined as: (1) the entire interest of the donor other than a qualified mineral interest; (2) a remainder interest; or (3) a restriction (granted in perpetuity) on the use that may be made of the real property. Qualified organizations include certain governmental units, public charities that meet certain public support tests, and certain supporting organizations. Conservation purposes include: (1) the preservation of land areas for outdoor recreation by, or for the education of, the general public; (2) the protection of a relatively natural habitat of fish, wildlife, or plants, or similar ecosystem; (3) the preservation of open space (including farmland and forest land) where such preservation will yield a significant public benefit and is either for the scenic enjoyment of the general public or pursuant to a clearly delineated Federal, State, or local governmental conservation policy; and (4) the preservation of an historically important land area or a certified historic structure.

Qualified conservation contributions of capital gain property are subject to the same limitations and carryover rules as other charitable contributions of capital gain property.

Temporary rules regarding contributions of capital gain real property for conservation purposes

In general

Under a temporary provision³⁵⁵ the 30-percent contribution base limitation on deductions for contributions of capital gain property by individuals does not apply to qualified conservation contributions (as defined under present law). Instead, individuals may deduct the fair market value of any qualified conservation contribution to the extent of the excess of 50 percent of the contribution base over the amount of all other allowable charitable contributions. These contributions are not taken into account in determining the amount of other allowable charitable contributions.

Individuals are allowed to carry over any qualified conservation contributions that exceed the 50-percent limitation for up to 15 years.

For example, assume an individual with a contribution base of $100 makes a qualified conservation contribution of property with a fair market value of $80 and makes other charitable contributions subject to the 50-percent limitation of $60. The individual is allowed a deduction of $50 in the current taxable year for the non-conservation contributions (50 percent of the $100 contribution base) and is allowed to carry over the excess $10 for up to 5 years. No current deduction is allowed for the qualified conservation contribution, but the entire $80 qualified conservation contribution may be carried forward for up to 15 years.

Farmers and ranchers

In the case of an individual who is a qualified farmer or rancher for the taxable year in which the contribution is made, a qualified conservation contribution is deductible up to 100 percent of the excess of the taxpayer's contribution base over the amount of all other allowable charitable contributions.

In the above example, if the individual is a qualified farmer or rancher, in addition to the $50 deduction for non-conservation contributions, an additional $50 for the qualified conservation contribution is allowed and $30 may be carried forward for up to 15 years as a contribution subject to the 100-percent limitation.

In the case of a corporation (other than a publicly traded corporation) that is a qualified farmer or rancher for the taxable year in which the contribution is made, any qualified conservation contribution is deductible up to 100 percent of the excess of the corporation's taxable income (as computed under section 170(b)(2)) over the amount of all other allowable charitable contributions. Any excess may be carried forward for up to 15 years as a contribution subject to the 100-percent limitation.³⁵⁶

As an additional condition of eligibility for the 100-percent limitation, with respect to any contribution of property in agriculture or livestock production, or that is available for such production, by a qualified farmer or rancher, the qualified real property interest must include a restriction that the property remain generally available for such production. (There is no requirement as to any specific use in agriculture or farming, or necessarily that the property be used for such purposes, merely that the property remain available for such purposes.)

A qualified farmer or rancher means a taxpayer whose gross income from the trade or business of farming (within the meaning of section 2032A(e)(5)) is greater than 50 percent of the taxpayer's gross income for the taxable year.

Termination

The temporary rules regarding contributions of capital gain real property for conservation purposes do not apply to contributions made in taxable years beginning after December 31, 2014.³⁵⁷

The provision also includes special rules for qualified conservation contributions by certain Native Corporations. For this purpose, the term Native Corporation has the meaning given such term by section 3(m) of the Alaska Native Claims Settlement Act.³⁵⁸ In the case of any qualified conservation contribution which is made by a Native Corporation and is a contribution of property that was land conveyed under the Alaska Native Claims Settlement Act, a deduction for the contribution is allowed to the extent that the aggregate amount of such contributions does not exceed the excess of 100 percent of the taxpayer's taxable income over the amount of all other allowable charitable contributions. Any excess may be carried forward for up to 15 years as a contribution subject to the 100-percent limitation. The provision shall not be construed to modify the existing property rights validly conveyed to Native Corporations under the Alaska Native Claims Settlement Act.

The provision for qualified conservation contributions by certain Native Corporations applies to contributions made in taxable years beginning after December 31, 2015.

8. Tax-free distributions from individual retirement plans for charitable purposes (sec. 112 of the Act and sec. 408(d)(8) of the Code)

If an amount withdrawn from a traditional individual retirement arrangement ("IRA") or a Roth IRA is donated to a charitable organization, the rules relating to the tax treatment of withdrawals from IRAs apply to the amount withdrawn and the charitable contribution is subject to the normally applicable limitations on deductibility of such contributions. An exception applies in the case of a qualified charitable distribution.

Charitable contributions

In computing taxable income, an individual taxpayer who itemizes deductions generally is allowed to deduct the amount of cash and up to the fair market value of property contributed to the following entities: (1) a charity described in section 170(c)(2); (2) certain veterans' organizations, fraternal societies, and cemetery companies;³⁵⁹ and (3) a Federal, State, or local governmental entity, but only if the contribution is made for exclusively public purposes.³⁶⁰ The deduction also is allowed for purposes of calculating alternative minimum taxable income.

The amount of the deduction allowable for a taxable year with respect to a charitable contribution of property may be reduced depending on the type of property contributed, the type of charitable organization to which the property is contributed, and the income of the taxpayer.³⁶¹

A taxpayer who takes the standard deduction (i.e., who does not itemize deductions) may not take a separate deduction for charitable contributions.³⁶²

A payment to a charity (regardless of whether it is termed a "contribution") in exchange for which the donor receives an economic benefit is not deductible, except to the extent that the donor can demonstrate, among other things, that the payment exceeds the fair market value of the benefit received from the charity. To facilitate distinguishing charitable contributions from purchases of goods or services from charities, present law provides that no charitable contribution deduction is allowed for a separate contribution of $250 or more unless the donor obtains a contemporaneous written acknowledgement of the contribution from the charity indicating whether the charity provided any good or service (and an estimate of the value of any such good or service provided) to the taxpayer in consideration for the contribution.³⁶³ In addition, present law requires that any charity that receives a contribution exceeding $75 made partly as a gift and partly as consideration for goods or services furnished by the charity (a "quid pro quo" contribution) is required to inform the contributor in writing of an estimate of the value of the goods or services furnished by the charity and that only the portion exceeding the value of the goods or services may be deductible as a charitable contribution.³⁶⁴

Under present law, total deductible contributions of an individual taxpayer to public charities, private operating foundations, and certain types of private nonoperating foundations generally may not exceed 50 percent of the taxpayer's contribution base, which is the taxpayer's adjusted gross income for a taxable year (disregarding any net operating loss carryback). To the extent a taxpayer has not exceeded the 50-percent limitation, (1) contributions of capital gain property to public charities generally may be deducted up to 30 percent of the taxpayer's contribution base, (2) contributions of cash to most private nonoperating foundations and certain other charitable organizations generally may be deducted up to 30 percent of the taxpayer's contribution base, and (3) contributions of capital gain property to private foundations and certain other charitable organizations generally may be deducted up to 20 percent of the taxpayer's contribution base.

Contributions by individuals in excess of the 50-percent, 30-percent, and 20-percent limits generally may be carried over and deducted over the next five taxable years, subject to the relevant percentage limitations on the deduction in each of those years.

In general, a charitable deduction is not allowed for income, estate, or gift tax purposes if the donor transfers an interest in property to a charity (e.g., a remainder) while also either retaining an interest in that property (e.g., an income interest) or transferring an interest in that property to a noncharity for less than full and adequate consideration.³⁶⁵ Exceptions to this general rule are provided for, among other interests, remainder interests in charitable remainder annuity trusts, charitable remainder unitrusts, and pooled income funds, and present interests in the form of a guaranteed annuity or a fixed percentage of the annual value of the property.³⁶⁶ For such interests, a charitable deduction is allowed to the extent of the present value of the interest designated for a charitable organization.

IRA rules

Within limits, individuals may make deductible and nondeductible contributions to a traditional IRA. Amounts in a traditional IRA are includible in income when withdrawn (except to the extent the withdrawal represents a return of nondeductible contributions). Certain individuals also may make nondeductible contributions to a Roth IRA (deductible contributions cannot be made to Roth IRAs). Qualified withdrawals from a Roth IRA are excludable from gross income. Withdrawals from a Roth IRA that are not qualified withdrawals are includible in gross income to the extent attributable to earnings. Includible amounts withdrawn from a traditional IRA or a Roth IRA before attainment of age 59 1/2 are subject to an additional 10-percent early withdrawal tax, unless an exception applies. Under present law, minimum distributions are required to be made from tax-favored retirement arrangements, including IRAs. Minimum required distributions from a traditional IRA must generally begin by April 1 of the calendar year following the year in which the IRA owner attains age 70 1/2.³⁶⁷

If an individual has made nondeductible contributions to a traditional IRA, a portion of each distribution from an IRA is non-taxable until the total amount of nondeductible contributions has been received. In general, the amount of a distribution that is non-taxable is determined by multiplying the amount of the distribution by the ratio of the remaining nondeductible contributions to the account balance. In making the calculation, all traditional IRAs of an individual are treated as a single IRA, all distributions during any taxable year are treated as a single distribution, and the value of the contract, income on the contract, and investment in the contract are computed as of the close of the calendar year.

In the case of a distribution from a Roth IRA that is not a qualified distribution, in determining the portion of the distribution attributable to earnings, contributions and distributions are deemed to be distributed in the following order: (1) regular Roth IRA contributions; (2) taxable conversion contributions;³⁶⁸ (3) nontaxable conversion contributions; and (4) earnings. In determining the amount of taxable distributions from a Roth IRA, all Roth IRA distributions in the same taxable year are treated as a single distribution.

Distributions from an IRA (other than a Roth IRA) are generally subject to withholding unless the individual elects not to have withholding apply.³⁶⁹ Elections not to have withholding apply are to be made in the time and manner prescribed by the Secretary.

Qualified charitable distributions

Otherwise taxable IRA distributions from a traditional or Roth IRA are excluded from gross income to the extent they are qualified charitable distributions.³⁷⁰ The exclusion may not exceed $100,000 per taxpayer per taxable year. Special rules apply in determining the amount of an IRA distribution that is otherwise taxable. The otherwise applicable rules regarding taxation of IRA distributions and the deduction of charitable contributions continue to apply to distributions from an IRA that are not qualified charitable distributions. A qualified charitable distribution is taken into account for purposes of the minimum distribution rules applicable to traditional IRAs to the same extent the distribution would have been taken into account under such rules had the distribution not been directly distributed under the qualified charitable distribution provision. An IRA does not fail to qualify as an IRA as a result of qualified charitable distributions being made from the IRA.

A qualified charitable distribution is any distribution from an IRA directly by the IRA trustee to an organization described in section 170(b)(1)(A) (generally, public charities) other than a supporting organization (as described in section 509(a)(3)) or a donor advised fund (as defined in section 4966(d)(2)). Distributions are eligible for the exclusion only if made on or after the date the IRA owner attains age 70 1/2 and only to the extent the distribution would be includible in gross income (without regard to this provision).

The exclusion applies only if a charitable contribution deduction for the entire distribution otherwise would be allowable (under present law), determined without regard to the generally applicable percentage limitations. Thus, for example, if the deductible amount is reduced because of a benefit received in exchange, or if a deduction is not allowable because the donor did not obtain sufficient substantiation, the exclusion is not available with respect to any part of the IRA distribution.

If the IRA owner has any IRA that includes nondeductible contributions, a special rule applies in determining the portion of a distribution that is includible in gross income (but for the qualified charitable distribution provision) and thus is eligible for qualified charitable distribution treatment. Under the special rule, the distribution is treated as consisting of income first, up to the aggregate amount that would be includible in gross income (but for the qualified charitable distribution provision) if the aggregate balance of all IRAs having the same owner were distributed during the same year. In determining the amount of subsequent IRA distributions includible in income, proper adjustments are to be made to reflect the amount treated as a qualified charitable distribution under the special rule.

Distributions that are excluded from gross income by reason of the qualified charitable distribution provision are not taken into account in determining the deduction for charitable contributions under section 170.

Under present law, the exclusion does not apply to distributions made in taxable years beginning after December 31, 2014.

9. Extension and expansion of charitable deduction for contributions of food inventory (sec. 113 of the Act and sec. 170 of the Code)

In general, an income tax deduction is permitted for charitable contributions, subject to certain limitations that depend on the type of taxpayer, the property contributed, and the donee organization.³⁷¹ In the case of an individual, the deduction is limited to various percentages of the contribution base, depending on the donee and the property contributed. In the case of a corporation,³⁷² the deduction generally is limited to ten percent of the taxable income (with modifications).³⁷³ Contributions in excess of these limitations may be carried forward for up to five taxable years.

Charitable contributions of cash are deductible in the amount contributed. Subject to several exceptions, contributions of property are deductible at the fair market value of the property. One exception provides that the amount of the charitable contribution is reduced by the amount of any gain which would not have been long-term capital gain if the property contributed had been sold by the taxpayer at its fair market value at the time of the contribution.³⁷⁴

General rules regarding contributions of inventory

As a result of the exception described above, a taxpayer's deduction for charitable contributions of inventory generally is limited to the taxpayer's basis (typically, cost) in the inventory, or, if less, the fair market value of the inventory.

However, for certain contributions of inventory, a C corporation may claim an enhanced deduction equal to the lesser of (1) basis plus one-half of the item's appreciation (i.e., basis plus one-half of fair market value in excess of basis) or (2) two times basis.³⁷⁵ To be eligible for the enhanced deduction, the contributed property generally must be inventory of the taxpayer and must be contributed to a charitable organization described in section 501(c)(3) (except for private nonoperating foundations), and the donee must (1) use the property consistent with the donee's exempt purpose solely for the care of the ill, the needy, or infants; (2) not transfer the property in exchange for money, other property, or services; and (3) provide the taxpayer a written statement that the donee's use of the property will be consistent with such requirements. In the case of contributed property subject to the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, as amended, the property must satisfy the applicable requirements of such Act on the date of transfer and for 180 days prior to the transfer.³⁷⁶

To use the enhanced deduction, the taxpayer must establish that the fair market value of the donated item exceeds basis. The valuation of food inventory has been the subject of disputes between taxpayers and the IRS.³⁷⁷

Temporary rule expanding and modifying the enhanced deduction for contributions of food inventory

Under a temporary provision, any taxpayer engaged in a trade or business, whether or not a C corporation, is eligible to claim the enhanced deduction for donations of food inventory.³⁷⁸ For taxpayers other than C corporations, the total deduction for donations of food inventory in a taxable year generally may not exceed ten percent of the taxpayer's net income for such taxable year from all sole proprietorships, S corporations, or partnerships (or other non C corporations) from which contributions of apparently wholesome food are made. For example, if a taxpayer is a sole proprietor, a shareholder in an S corporation, and a partner in a partnership, and each business makes charitable contributions of food inventory, the taxpayer's deduction for donations of food inventory is limited to ten percent of the taxpayer's net income from the sole proprietorship and the taxpayer's interests in the S corporation and partnership. However, if only the sole proprietorship and the S corporation made charitable contributions of food inventory, the taxpayer's deduction would be limited to ten percent of the net income from the trade or business of the sole proprietorship and the taxpayer's interest in the S corporation, but not the taxpayer's interest in the partnership.³⁷⁹

Under the temporary provision, the enhanced deduction for food is available only for food that qualifies as "apparently wholesome food." Apparently wholesome food is defined as food intended for human consumption that meets all quality and labeling standards imposed by Federal, State, and local laws and regulations even though the food may not be readily marketable due to appearance, age, freshness, grade, size, surplus, or other conditions.

The provision does not apply to contributions made after December 31, 2014.

For taxable years beginning after December 31, 2015, the provision also modifies the enhanced deduction for food inventory contributions by: (1) increasing the charitable percentage limitation for food inventory contributions and clarifying the carryover and co-ordination rules for these contributions; (2) including a presumption concerning the tax basis of food inventory donated by certain businesses; and (3) including presumptions that may be used when valuing donated food inventory.

First, the ten-percent limitation described above applicable to taxpayers other than C corporations is increased to 15 percent. For C corporations, these contributions are made subject to a limitation of 15 percent of taxable income (as modified). The general ten-percent limitation for a C corporation does not apply to these contributions, but the ten-percent limitation applicable to other contributions is reduced by the amount of these contributions. Qualifying food inventory contributions in excess of these 15-percent limitations may be carried forward and treated as qualifying food inventory contributions in each of the five succeeding taxable years in order of time.

Second, if the taxpayer does not account for inventory under section 471 and is not required to capitalize indirect costs under section 263A, the taxpayer may elect, solely for computing the enhanced deduction for food inventory, to treat the basis of any apparently wholesome food as being equal to 25 percent of the fair market value of such food.

Third, in the case of any contribution of apparently wholesome food which cannot or will not be sold solely by reason of internal standards of the taxpayer, lack of market, or similar circumstances, or by reason of being produced by the taxpayer exclusively for the purposes of transferring the food to an organization described in section 501(c)(3), the fair market value of such contribution shall be determined (1) without regard to such internal standards, such lack of market or similar circumstances, or such exclusive purpose, and (2) by taking into account the price at which the same or substantially the same food items (as to both type and quality) are sold by the taxpayer at the time of the contributions (or, if not so sold at such time, in the recent past).

The modifications to increase the corporate percentage limit and to provide for presumptions relating to basis and valuation apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2015.

10. Extension of modification of tax treatment of certain payments to controlling exempt organizations (sec. 114 of the Act and sec. 512 of the Code)

Section 512(b)(13) provides rules regarding income derived by an exempt organization from a controlled subsidiary. In general, section 512(b)(13) treats otherwise excluded rent, royalty, annuity, and interest income as unrelated business taxable income if such income is received from a taxable or tax-exempt subsidiary that is 50-percent controlled by the parent tax-exempt organization to the extent the payment reduces the net unrelated income (or increases any net unrelated loss) of the controlled entity (determined as if the entity were tax exempt).

In the case of a stock subsidiary, "control" means ownership by vote or value of more than 50 percent of the stock. In the case of a partnership or other entity, "control" means ownership of more than 50 percent of the profits, capital, or beneficial interests. In addition, present law applies the constructive ownership rules of section 318 for purposes of section 512(b)(13). Thus, a parent exempt organization is deemed to control any subsidiary in which it holds more than 50 percent of the voting power or value, directly (as in the case of a first-tier subsidiary) or indirectly (as in the case of a second-tier subsidiary).

For payments made pursuant to a binding written contract in effect on August 17, 2006 (or renewal of such a contract on substantially similar terms), the general rule of section 512(b)(13) applies only to the portion of payments received or accrued in a taxable year that exceeds the amount of the payment that would have been paid or accrued if the amount of such payment had been determined under the principles of section 482 (i.e., at arm's length).³⁸² A 20-percent penalty is imposed on the larger of such excess determined without regard to any amendment or supplement to a return of tax, or such excess determined with regard to all such amendments and supplements. This special rule does not apply to payments received or accrued after December 31, 2014.

11. Extension of basis adjustment to stock of S corporations making charitable contributions of property (sec. 115 of the Act and sec. 1367 of the Code)

In the case of charitable contributions made in taxable years beginning before January 1, 2015, the amount of a shareholder's basis reduction in the stock of an S corporation by reason of a charitable contribution made by the corporation is equal to the share-holder's pro rata share of the adjusted basis of the contributed property. For contributions made in taxable years beginning after December 31, 2014, the amount of the reduction is the share-holder's pro rata share of the fair market value of the contributed property.

General rule

For general research expenditures, a taxpayer may claim a research credit equal to 20 percent of the amount by which the taxpayer's qualified research expenses for a taxable year exceed its base amount for that year.³⁸⁵ Thus, the research credit is generally available with respect to incremental increases in qualified research. An alternative simplified credit (with a 14-percent rate and a different base amount) may be claimed in lieu of this credit.³⁸⁶

A 20-percent research tax credit also is available with respect to the excess of (1) 100 percent of corporate cash expenses (including grants or contributions) paid for basic research conducted by universities (and certain nonprofit scientific research organizations) over (2) the sum of (a) the greater of two minimum basic research floors plus (b) an amount reflecting any decrease in nonresearch giving to universities by the corporation as compared to such giving during a fixed-base period, as adjusted for inflation.³⁸⁷ This separate credit computation commonly is referred to as the basic research credit.

Finally, a research credit is available for a taxpayer's expenditures on research undertaken by an energy research consortium.³⁸⁸ This separate credit computation commonly is referred to as the energy research credit. Unlike the other research credits, the energy research credit applies to all qualified expenditures, not just those in excess of a base amount.

The research credit, including the basic research credit and the energy research credit, expires for amounts paid or incurred after December 31, 2014.³⁸⁹

Computation of general research credit

The general research tax credit applies only to the extent that the taxpayer's qualified research expenses for the current taxable year exceed its base amount. The base amount for the current year generally is computed by multiplying the taxpayer's fixed-base percentage by the average amount of the taxpayer's gross receipts for the four preceding years. If a taxpayer both incurred qualified research expenses and had gross receipts during each of at least three years from 1984 through 1988, then its fixed-base percentage is the ratio that its total qualified research expenses for the 1984-1988 period bears to its total gross receipts for that period (subject to a maximum fixed-base percentage of 16 percent). Special rules apply to all other taxpayers (so called start-up firms).³⁹⁰ In computing the research credit, a taxpayer's base amount cannot be less than 50 percent of its current-year qualified research expenses.

Alternative simplified credit

The alternative simplified credit is equal to 14 percent of qualified research expenses that exceed 50 percent of the average qualified research expenses for the three preceding taxable years.³⁹¹ The rate is reduced to 6 percent if a taxpayer has no qualified research expenses in any one of the three preceding taxable years.³⁹² An election to use the alternative simplified credit applies to all succeeding taxable years unless revoked with the consent of the Secretary.³⁹³

Eligible expenses

Qualified research expenses eligible for the research tax credit consist of: (1) in-house expenses of the taxpayer for wages and supplies attributable to qualified research; (2) certain time-sharing costs for computer use in qualified research; and (3) 65 percent of amounts paid or incurred by the taxpayer to certain other persons for qualified research conducted on the taxpayer's behalf (so-called contract research expenses).³⁹⁴ Notwithstanding the limitation for contract research expenses, qualified research expenses include 100 percent of amounts paid or incurred by the taxpayer to an eligible small business, university, or Federal laboratory for qualified energy research.

To be eligible for the credit, the research not only has to satisfy the requirements of section 174, but also must be undertaken for the purpose of discovering information that is technological in nature, the application of which is intended to be useful in the development of a new or improved business component of the taxpayer, and substantially all of the activities of which constitute elements of a process of experimentation for functional aspects, performance, reliability, or quality of a business component. Research does not qualify for the credit if substantially all of the activities relate to style, taste, cosmetic, or seasonal design factors.³⁹⁵ In addition, research does not qualify for the credit if: (1) conducted after the beginning of commercial production of the business component; (2) related to the adaptation of an existing business component to a particular customer's requirements; (3) related to the duplication of an existing business component from a physical examination of the component itself or certain other information; (4) related to certain efficiency surveys, management function or technique, market research, market testing, or market development, routine data collection or routine quality control; (5) related to software developed primarily for internal use by the taxpayer; (6) conducted outside the United States, Puerto Rico, or any U.S. possession; (7) in the social sciences, arts, or humanities; or (8) funded by any grant, contract, or otherwise by another person (or government entity).³⁹⁶

Relation to deduction

Deductions allowed to a taxpayer under section 174 (or any other section) are reduced by an amount equal to 100 percent of the taxpayer's research tax credit determined for the taxable year.³⁹⁷ Taxpayers may alternatively elect to claim a reduced research tax credit amount under section 41 in lieu of reducing deductions otherwise allowed.³⁹⁸

Specified credits allowed against alternative minimum tax

For any taxable year, the general business credit (which is the sum of the various business credits) generally may not exceed the excess of the taxpayer's net income tax ³⁹⁹ over the greater of (1) the taxpayer's tentative minimum tax or (2) 25 percent of so much of the taxpayer's net regular tax liability ⁴⁰⁰ as exceeds $25,000.⁴⁰¹ Any general business credit in excess of this limitation may be carried back one year and forward up to 20 years.⁴⁰² The tentative minimum tax is an amount equal to specified rates of tax imposed on the excess of the alternative minimum taxable income over an exemption amount.⁴⁰³ Generally, the tentative minimum tax of a C corporation with average annual gross receipts of less than $7.5 million for prior three-year periods is zero.⁴⁰⁴

In applying the tax liability limitation to a list of "specified credits" that are part of the general business credit, the tentative minimum tax is treated as being zero.⁴⁰⁵ Thus, the specified credits generally may offset both regular tax and alternative minimum tax ("AMT") liabilities.

For taxable years beginning in 2010, an eligible small business was allowed to offset both the regular and AMT liability with the general business credits determined for the taxable year ("eligible small business credits").⁴⁰⁶ For this purpose, an eligible small business was, with respect to any taxable year, a corporation, the stock of which was not publicly traded, a partnership, or a sole proprietor, if the average annual gross receipts did not exceed $50 million.⁴⁰⁷ Credits determined with respect to a partnership or S corporation were not treated as eligible small business credits by a partner or shareholder unless the partner or shareholder met the gross receipts test for the taxable year in which the credits were treated as current year business credits.⁴⁰⁸

FICA taxes

The Federal Insurance Contributions Act ("FICA") imposes tax on employers and employees based on the amount of wages (as defined for FICA purposes) paid to an employee during the year, often referred to as "payroll" taxes.⁴⁰⁹ The tax imposed on the employer and on the employee is each composed of two parts: (1) the Social Security or old age, survivors, and disability insurance ("OASDI") tax equal to 6.2 percent of covered wages up to the taxable wage base ($118,500 for 2015); and (2) the Medicare or hospital insurance ("HI") tax equal to 1.45 percent of all covered wages.⁴¹⁰ The employee portion of the FICA tax generally must be withheld and remitted to the Federal government by the employer.

An employer generally files quarterly employment tax returns showing its liability for FICA taxes with respect to its employees' wages for the quarter, as well as the employee FICA taxes and income taxes withheld from the employees' wages.

The provision makes permanent the present law credit.⁴¹¹

Specified credits allowed against alternative minimum tax

The provision provides that, in the case of an eligible small business (as defined in section 38(c)(5)(C), after application of rules similar to the rules of section 38(c)(5)(D)), the research credit determined under section 41 for taxable years beginning after December 31, 2015, is a specified credit. Thus, these research credits of an eligible small business may offset both regular tax and AMT liabilities.⁴¹²

Payroll tax credit

In general

Under the provision, for taxable years beginning after December 31, 2015, a qualified small business may elect for any taxable year to claim a certain amount of its research credit as a payroll tax credit against its employer OASDI liability, rather than against its income tax liability.⁴¹³ If a taxpayer makes an election under this provision, the amount so elected is treated as a research credit for purposes of section 280C.⁴¹⁴

A qualified small business is defined, with respect to any taxable year, as a corporation (including an S corporation) or partnership (1) with gross receipts of less than $5 million for the taxable year,⁴¹⁵ and (2) that did not have gross receipts for any taxable year before the five taxable year period ending with the taxable year. An individual carrying on one or more trades or businesses also may be considered a qualified small business if the individual meets the conditions set forth in (1) and (2), taking into account its aggregate gross receipts received with respect to all trades or businesses. A qualified small business does not include an organization exempt from income tax under section 501.

The payroll tax credit portion is the least of (1) an amount specified by the taxpayer that does not exceed $250,000, (2) the research credit determined for the taxable year, or (3) in the case of a qualified small business other than a partnership or S corporation, the amount of the business credit carryforward under section 39 from the taxable year (determined before the application of this provision to the taxable year).

For purposes of this provision, all members of the same controlled group or group under common control are treated as a single taxpayer.⁴¹⁶ The $250,000 amount is allocated among the members in proportion to each member's expenses on which the research credit is based. Each member may separately elect the payroll tax credit, but not in excess of its allocated dollar amount.

A taxpayer may make an annual election under this section, specifying the amount of its research credit not to exceed $250,000 that may be used as a payroll tax credit, on or before the due date (including extensions) of its originally filed return.⁴¹⁷ A taxpayer may not make an election for a taxable year if it has made such an election for five or more preceding taxable years. An election to apply the research credit against OASDI liability may not be revoked without the consent of the Secretary of the Treasury ("Secretary"). In the case of a partnership or S corporation, an election to apply the credit against its OASDI liability is made at the entity level.

Application of credit against OASDI tax liability

The payroll tax portion of the research credit is allowed as a credit against the qualified small business's OASDI tax liability for the first calendar quarter beginning after the date on which the qualified small business files its income tax or information return for the taxable year. The credit may not exceed the OASDI tax liability for a calendar quarter on the wages paid with respect to all employees of the qualified small business.

If the payroll tax portion of the credit exceeds the qualified small business's OASDI tax liability for a calendar quarter, the excess is allowed as a credit against the OASDI liability for the following calendar quarter.

Other rules

The Secretary is directed to prescribe such regulations as are necessary to carry out the purposes of the provision, including (1) to prevent the avoidance of the purposes of the limitations and aggregation rules through the use of successor companies or other means, (2) to minimize compliance and record-keeping burdens, and (3) for recapture of the credit amount applied against OASDI taxes in the case of an adjustment to the payroll tax portion of the research credit, including requiring amended returns in such a case.

The provision to allow the research credit against AMT applies to research credits of eligible small businesses determined for taxable years beginning after December 31, 2015.

The provision to allow the research credit against FICA taxes applies to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2015.

13. Extension and modification of employer wage credit for employees who are active duty members of the uniformed services (sec. 122 of the Act and sec. 45P of the Code)

In general, compensation paid by an employer to an employee is deductible by the employer unless the expense must be capitalized.⁴¹⁸ In the case of an employee who is called to active duty with respect to the armed forces of the United States, some employers voluntarily pay the employee the difference between the compensation that the employer would have paid to the employee during the period of military service less the amount of pay received by the employee from the military. This payment by the employer is often referred to as "differential pay."

Wage credit for differential pay

If an employer qualifies as an eligible small business employer, the employer is allowed a credit against its income tax liability for a taxable year in an amount equal to 20 percent of the sum of the eligible differential wage payments for each of the employer's qualified employees during the year.

An eligible small business employer means, with respect to a taxable year, an employer that: (1) employed on average less than 50 employees on business days during the taxable year; and (2) under a written plan of the taxpayer, provides eligible differential wage payments to every qualified employee. For this purpose, members of controlled groups, groups under common control, and affiliated service groups are treated as a single employer.⁴¹⁹ The credit is not available with respect to an employer that has failed to comply with the employment and reemployment rights of members of the uniformed services.⁴²⁰

Differential wage payment means any payment that: (1) is made by an employer to an individual with respect to any period during which the individual is performing service in the uniformed services of the United States while on active duty for a period of more than 30 days, and (2) represents all or a portion of the wages that the individual would have received from the employer if the individual were performing services for the employer.⁴²¹ Eligible differential wage payments are so much of the differential wage payments paid to a qualified employee as does not exceed $20,000. A qualified employee is an individual who has been an employee of the employer for the 91-day period immediately preceding the period for which any differential wage payment is made.

No deduction may be taken for that portion of compensation that is equal to the credit.⁴²² In addition, the amount of any other income tax credit otherwise allowable with respect to compensation paid to an employee must be reduced by the differential wage payment credit allowed with respect to the employee. The credit is not allowable against a taxpayer's alternative minimum tax liability. Certain rules applicable to the work opportunity tax credit in the case of tax-exempt organizations, estates and trusts, regulated investment companies, real estate investment trusts and certain cooperatives apply also to the differential wage payment credit.⁴²³

The credit is available with respect to amounts paid after June 17, 2008,⁴²⁴ and before January 1, 2015.

The provision making the credit available to employers of any size applies to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2015.

14. Extension of 15-year straight-line cost recovery for qualified leasehold improvements, qualified restaurant buildings and improvements, and qualified retail improvements (sec. 123 of the Act and sec. 168 of the Code)

A taxpayer generally must capitalize the cost of property used in a trade or business and recover such cost over time through annual deductions for depreciation or amortization. Tangible property generally is depreciated under the modified accelerated cost recovery system ("MACRS"), which determines depreciation by applying specific recovery periods, placed-in-service conventions, and depreciation methods to the cost of various types of depreciable property.⁴²⁵ The cost of nonresidential real property is recovered using the straight-line method of depreciation and a recovery period of 39 years. Nonresidential real property is subject to the mid-month placed-in-service convention. Under the mid-month convention, the depreciation allowance for the first year in which property is placed in service is based on the number of months the property was in service, and property placed in service at any time during a month is treated as having been placed in service in the middle of the month.

Depreciation of leasehold improvements

Generally, depreciation allowances for improvements made on leased property are determined under MACRS, even if the MACRS recovery period assigned to the property is longer than the term of the lease. This rule applies regardless of whether the lessor or the lessee places the leasehold improvements in service. If a leasehold improvement constitutes an addition or improvement to nonresidential real property already placed in service, the improvement generally is depreciated using the straight-line method over a 39-year recovery period, beginning in the month the addition or improvement was placed in service. However, exceptions exist for certain qualified leasehold improvements, qualified restaurant property, and qualified retail improvement property.

Qualified leasehold improvement property

Section 168(e)(3)(E)(iv) provides a statutory 15-year recovery period for qualified leasehold improvement property placed in service before January 1, 2015. Qualified leasehold improvement property is any improvement to an interior portion of a building that is nonresidential real property, provided certain requirements are met.⁴²⁶ The improvement must be made under or pursuant to a lease either by the lessee (or sublessee), or by the lessor, of that portion of the building to be occupied exclusively by the lessee (or subles-see). The improvement must be placed in service more than three years after the date the building was first placed in service. Qualified leasehold improvement property does not include any improvement for which the expenditure is attributable to the enlargement of the building, any elevator or escalator, any structural component benefiting a common area, or the internal structural framework of the building.⁴²⁷ If a lessor makes an improvement that qualifies as qualified leasehold improvement property, such improvement does not qualify as qualified leasehold improvement property to any subsequent owner of such improvement.⁴²⁸ An exception to the rule applies in the case of death and certain transfers of property that qualify for nonrecognition treatment.⁴²⁹

Qualified leasehold improvement property is generally recovered using the straight-line method and a half-year convention.⁴³⁰ Qualified leasehold improvement property placed in service after December 31, 2014 is subject to the general rules described above.

Qualified restaurant property

Section 168(e)(3)(E)(v) provides a statutory 15-year recovery period for qualified restaurant property placed in service before January 1, 2015. Qualified restaurant property is any section 1250 property that is a building or an improvement to a building, if more than 50 percent of the building's square footage is devoted to the preparation of, and seating for on-premises consumption of, prepared meals.⁴³¹ Qualified restaurant property is recovered using the straight-line method and a half-year convention.⁴³² Additionally, qualified restaurant property is not eligible for bonus depreciation unless it also satisfies the definition of qualified leasehold improvement property.⁴³³ Qualified restaurant property placed in service after December 31, 2014 is subject to the general rules described above.

Qualified retail improvement property

Section 168(e)(3)(E)(ix) provides a statutory 15-year recovery period for qualified retail improvement property placed in service before January 1, 2015. Qualified retail improvement property is any improvement to an interior portion of a building which is nonresidential real property if such portion is open to the general public ⁴³⁴ and is used in the retail trade or business of selling tangible personal property to the general public, and such improvement is placed in service more than three years after the date the building was first placed in service.⁴³⁵ Qualified retail improvement property does not include any improvement for which the expenditure is attributable to the enlargement of the building, any elevator or escalator, any structural component benefiting a common area, or the internal structural framework of the building.⁴³⁶ In the case of an improvement made by the owner of such improvement, the improvement is a qualified retail improvement only so long as the improvement is held by such owner.⁴³⁷

Retail establishments that qualify for the 15-year recovery period include those primarily engaged in the sale of goods. Examples of these retail establishments include, but are not limited to, grocery stores, clothing stores, hardware stores, and convenience stores. Establishments primarily engaged in providing services, such as professional services, financial services, personal services, health services, and entertainment, do not qualify. Generally, it is intended that businesses defined as a store retailer under the current North American Industry Classification System (industry sub-sectors 441 through 453) qualify while those in other industry classes do not qualify.⁴³⁸

Qualified retail improvement property is recovered using the straight-line method and a half-year convention.⁴³⁹ Additionally, qualified retail improvement property is not eligible for bonus depreciation unless it also satisfies the definition of qualified leasehold improvement property.⁴⁴⁰ Qualified retail improvement property placed in service after December 31, 2014 is subject to the general rules described above.

15. Extension and modification of increased expensing limitations and treatment of certain real property as section 179 property (sec. 124 of the Act and sec. 179 of the Code)

For taxable years beginning in 2015 and thereafter, a taxpayer may elect to deduct up to $25,000 of the cost of qualifying property placed in service for the taxable year, subject to limitation. The $25,000 amount is reduced (but not below zero) by the amount by which the cost of qualifying property placed in service during the taxable year exceeds $200,000. The $25,000 and $200,000 amounts are not indexed for inflation. In general, qualifying property is defined as depreciable tangible personal property (not including off-the-shelf computer software, qualified real property, or air conditioning and heating units) that is purchased for use in the active conduct of a trade or business.

The amount eligible to be expensed for a taxable year may not exceed the taxable income for such taxable year that is derived from the active conduct of a trade or business (determined without regard to this provision).⁴⁴⁷ Any amount that is not allowed as a deduction because of the taxable income limitation may be carried forward to succeeding taxable years (subject to limitations). However, amounts attributable to qualified real property that are disallowed under the trade or business income limitation may only be carried over to taxable years in which the definition of eligible section 179 property includes qualified real property.⁴⁴⁸ Thus, if a taxpayer's section 179 deduction for 2013 with respect to qualified real property is limited by the taxpayer's active trade or business income, such disallowed amount may be carried over to 2014. Any such carryover amounts that are not used in 2014 are treated as property placed in service in 2014 for purposes of computing depreciation. That is, the unused carryover amount from 2013 is considered placed in service on the first day of the 2014 taxable year.⁴⁴⁹

No general business credit under section 38 is allowed with respect to any amount for which a deduction is allowed under section 179.⁴⁵⁰ If a corporation makes an election under section 179 to deduct expenditures, the full amount of the deduction does not reduce earnings and profits. Rather, the expenditures that are deducted reduce corporate earnings and profits ratably over a five-year period.⁴⁵¹

An expensing election is made under rules prescribed by the Secretary.⁴⁵² In general, any election or specification made with respect to any property may not be revoked except with the consent of the Commissioner. However, an election or specification under section 179 may be revoked by the taxpayer without consent of the Commissioner for taxable years beginning after 2002 and before 2015.⁴⁵³

In addition, the provision makes permanent the treatment of off-the-shelf computer software as qualifying property. The provision also makes permanent the treatment of qualified real property as eligible section 179 property. For taxable years beginning in 2015, the provision extends the limitation on carryovers and the maximum amount available with respect to qualified real property of $250,000 for such taxable year. The provision removes the limitation related to the amount of section 179 property that may be attributable to qualified real property for taxable years beginning after 2015. Further, for taxable years beginning after 2015, the provision strikes the flush language in section 179(d)(1) that excludes air conditioning and heating units from the definition of qualifying property.

The provision also makes permanent the permission granted to a taxpayer to revoke without the consent of the Commissioner any election, and any specification contained therein, made under section 179.

The modifications apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2015.

16. Extension of treatment of certain dividends of regulated investment companies (sec. 125 of the Act and sec. 871(k) of the Code)

Under a temporary provision of prior law, a RIC that earned certain interest income that generally would not be subject to U.S. tax if earned by a foreign person directly could, to the extent of such net interest income, designate dividends it paid as derived from such interest income for purposes of the treatment of a foreign RIC shareholder. The consequence of that designation was that such dividends were not subject to gross-basis U.S. tax. Also, subject to certain requirements, the RIC was exempt from withholding the gross-basis tax on such dividends. Similar rules applied with respect to the designation of certain short-term capital gain dividends. However, these provisions relating to dividends with respect to interest income and short-term capital gain of the RIC have expired, and therefore do not apply to dividends with respect to any taxable year of a RIC beginning after December 31, 2014.⁴⁵⁴

17. Extension of exclusion of 100 percent of gain on certain small business stock (sec. 126 of the Act and sec. 1202 of the Code)

A taxpayer other than a corporation may exclude 50 percent (60 percent for certain empowerment zone businesses) of the gain from the sale of certain small business stock acquired at original issue and held for at least five years.⁴⁵⁵ The amount of gain eligible for the exclusion by an individual with respect to the stock of any corporation is the greater of (1) ten times the taxpayer's basis in the stock or (2) $10 million (reduced by the amount of gain eligible for exclusion in prior years). To qualify as a small business, when the stock is issued, the aggregate gross assets (i.e., cash plus aggregate adjusted basis of other property) held by the corporation may not exceed $50 million. The corporation also must meet certain active trade or business requirements.

The portion of the gain includible in taxable income is taxed at a maximum rate of 28 percent under the regular tax rates applicable to the net capital gain of individuals.⁴⁵⁶ Seven percent of the excluded gain is an alternative minimum tax preference.⁴⁵⁷

Special rules for stock acquired after February 17, 2009, and before January 1, 2015

For qualified small business stock acquired after February 17, 2009, and before September 28, 2010, the percent of gain which may be excluded is increased to 75 percent.

For qualified small business stock acquired after September 27, 2010, and before January 1, 2015, the percent of gain which may be excluded is increased to 100 percent and the minimum tax preference does not apply.

18. Extension of reduction in S corporation recognition period for built-in gains tax (sec. 127 of the Act and sec. 1374 of the Code)

A "small business corporation" (as defined in section 1361(b)) may elect to be treated as an S corporation. Unlike C corporations, S corporations generally pay no corporate-level tax. Instead, items of income and loss of an S corporation pass through to its shareholders. Each shareholder takes into account separately its share of these items on its own income tax return.⁴⁵⁸

Under section 1374, a corporate level built-in gains tax, at the highest marginal rate applicable to corporations (currently 35 percent), is imposed on an S corporation's net recognized built-in gain ⁴⁵⁹ that arose prior to the conversion of the C corporation to an S corporation and is recognized by the S corporation during the recognition period, i.e., the 10-year period beginning with the first day of the first taxable year for which the S election is in effect.⁴⁶⁰ If the taxable income of the S corporation is less than the amount of net recognized built-in gain in the year such built-in gain is recognized (e.g., because of post-conversion losses), no tax under section 1374 is imposed on the excess of such built-in gain over taxable income for that year. However, the untaxed excess of net recognized built-in gain over taxable income for that year is treated as recognized built-in gain in the succeeding taxable year.⁴⁶¹ Treasury regulations provide that if a corporation sells an asset before or during the recognition period and reports the income from the sale using the installment method under section 453 during or after the recognition period, that income is subject to tax under section 1374.⁴⁶²

The built-in gains tax also applies to net recognized built-in gain attributable to any asset received by an S corporation from a C corporation in a transaction in which the S corporation's basis in the asset is determined (in whole or in part) by reference to the basis of such asset (or other property) in the hands of the C corporation.⁴⁶³ In the case of such a transaction, the recognition period for any asset transferred by the C corporation starts on the date the asset was acquired by the S corporation in lieu of the beginning of the first taxable year for which the corporation was an S corporation.⁴⁶⁴

The amount of the built-in gains tax under section 1374 is treated as a loss by each of the S corporation shareholders in computing its own income tax. The character of the loss is determined by allocating the loss proportionately among the gains giving rise to the tax.⁴⁶⁵

Special rules for 2009, 2010, and 2011

For any taxable year beginning in 2009 and 2010, no tax was imposed on the net recognized built-in gain of an S corporation under section 1374 if the seventh taxable year in the corporation's\recognition period preceded such taxable year.⁴⁶⁶ Thus, with respect to gain that arose prior to the conversion of a C corporation to an S corporation, no tax was imposed under section 1374 if the seventh taxable year that the S corporation election was in effect preceded the taxable year beginning in 2009 or 2010.

For any taxable year beginning in 2011, no tax was imposed on the net recognized built-in gain of an S corporation under section 1374 if the fifth year in the corporation's recognition period preceded such taxable year.⁴⁶⁷ Thus, with respect to gain that arose prior to the conversion of a C corporation to an S corporation, no tax was imposed under section 1374 if the fifth taxable year that the S corporation election was in effect preceded the taxable year beginning in 2011.

Special rules for 2012, 2013, and 2014

For taxable years beginning in 2012, 2013, and 2014, the term "recognition period" in section 1374, for purposes of determining the net recognized built-in gain, was applied by substituting a five-year period for the otherwise applicable 10-year period.⁴⁶⁸ Thus, for such taxable years, the recognition period was the five-year period beginning with the first day of the first taxable year for which the corporation was an S corporation (or beginning with the date of acquisition of assets if the rules applicable to assets acquired from a C corporation applied). If an S corporation with assets subject to section 1374 disposed of such assets in a taxable year beginning in 2012, 2013, or 2014 and the disposition occurred more than five years after the first day of the relevant recognition period, gain or loss on the disposition was not be taken into account in determining the net recognized built-in gain.

The rule requiring the excess of net recognized built-in gain over taxable income for a taxable year to be carried over and treated as recognized built-in gain in the succeeding taxable year applied only to gain recognized within the recognition period.

If an S corporation subject to section 1374 sold a built-in gain asset and reported the income from the sale using the installment method under section 453, the treatment of all payments received was governed by the provisions of section 1374(d)(7) applicable to the taxable year in which the sale was made.⁴⁶⁹

Application to regulated investment trusts and real estate investment trusts

Under Treasury regulations issued under section 337(d), a regulated investment company ("RIC") or a real estate investment trust ("REIT") that was formerly a C corporation (or that acquired assets from a C corporation) generally is subject to the rules of section 1374 as if the RIC or REIT were an S corporation, unless the relevant C corporation elects "deemed sale" treatment.⁴⁷⁰ The Treasury regulations include an express reference to the 10-year recognition period in section 1374.⁴⁷¹

19. Extension of subpart F exception for active financing income (sec. 128 of the Act and secs. 953 and 954 of the Code)

Foreign personal holding company income generally consists of the following: (1) dividends, interest, royalties, rents, and annuities; (2) net gains from the sale or exchange of (a) property that gives rise to the preceding types of income, (b) property that does not give rise to income, and (c) interests in trusts, partnerships, and real estate mortgage investment conduits ("REMICs"); (3) net gains from commodities transactions; (4) net gains from certain foreign currency transactions; (5) income that is equivalent to interest; (6) income from notional principal contracts; (7) payments in lieu of dividends; and (8) amounts received under personal service contracts.

Insurance income subject to current inclusion under the subpart F rules includes any income of a CFC attributable to the issuing or reinsuring of any insurance or annuity contract in connection with risks located in a country other than the CFC's country of organization. Subpart F insurance income also includes income attributable to an insurance contract in connection with risks located within the CFC's country of organization, as the result of an arrangement under which another corporation receives a substantially equal amount of consideration for insurance of other country risks. Investment income of a CFC that is allocable to any insurance or annuity contract related to risks located outside the CFC's country of organization is taxable as subpart F insurance income.⁴⁷³

Temporary exceptions from foreign personal holding company income, foreign base company services income, and insurance income apply for subpart F purposes for certain income that is derived in the active conduct of a banking, financing, or similar business, as a securities dealer, or in the conduct of an insurance business (so-called "active financing income").

With respect to income derived in the active conduct of a banking, financing, or similar business, a CFC is required to be predominantly engaged in such business and to conduct substantial activity with respect to such business to qualify for the active financing exceptions. In addition, certain nexus requirements apply, which provide that income derived by a CFC or a qualified business unit ("QBU") of a CFC from transactions with customers is eligible for the exceptions if, among other things, substantially all of the activities in connection with such transactions are conducted directly by the CFC or QBU in its home country, and such income is treated as earned by the CFC or QBU in its home country for purposes of such country's tax laws. Moreover, the exceptions apply to income derived from certain cross border transactions, provided that certain requirements are met. Additional exceptions from foreign personal holding company income apply for certain income derived by a securities dealer within the meaning of section 475 and for gain from the sale of active financing assets.

In the case of a securities dealer, the temporary exception from foreign personal holding company income applies to certain income. The income covered by the exception is any interest or dividend (or certain equivalent amounts) from any transaction, including a hedging transaction or a transaction consisting of a deposit of collateral or margin, entered into in the ordinary course of the dealer's trade or business as a dealer in securities within the meaning of section 475. In the case of a QBU of the dealer, the income is required to be attributable to activities of the QBU in the country of incorporation, or to a QBU in the country in which the QBU both maintains its principal office and conducts substantial business activity. A coordination rule provides that this exception generally takes precedence over the exception for income of a banking, financing or similar business, in the case of a securities dealer.

In the case of insurance, a temporary exception from foreign personal holding company income applies for certain income of a qualifying insurance company with respect to risks located within the CFC's country of creation or organization. In the case of insurance, temporary exceptions from insurance income and from foreign personal holding company income also apply for certain income of a qualifying branch of a qualifying insurance company with respect to risks located within the home country of the branch, provided certain requirements are met under each of the exceptions. Further, additional temporary exceptions from insurance income and from foreign personal holding company income apply for certain income of certain CFCs or branches with respect to risks located in a country other than the United States, provided that the requirements for these exceptions are met. In the case of a life insurance or annuity contract, reserves for such contracts are determined under rules specific to the temporary exceptions.

Present law also permits a taxpayer in certain circumstances, subject to approval by the IRS through the ruling process, or as provided in published guidance, to establish that the reserve of a life insurance company for life insurance and annuity contracts is the amount taken into account in determining the foreign statement reserve for the contract (reduced by catastrophe, equalization, or deficiency reserve or any similar reserve). IRS approval or published guidance is to be based on whether the method, the interest rate, the mortality and morbidity assumptions, and any other factors taken into account in determining foreign statement reserves (taken together or separately) provide an appropriate means of measuring income for Federal income tax purposes.

The temporary exceptions apply for taxable years of foreign corporations beginning after December 31, 1998 and before January 1, 2015, and for taxable years of U.S. shareholders with or within which such taxable years of such foreign corporations end.

The low-income housing credit may be claimed over a 10-year credit period after each low-income building is placed-in-service. The amount of the credit for any taxable year in the credit period is the applicable percentage of the qualified basis of each qualified low-income building.

Present value credit

The calculation of the applicable percentage is designed to produce a credit equal to: (1) 70 percent of the present value of the building's qualified basis in the case of newly constructed or substantially rehabilitated housing that is not Federally subsidized (the "70-percent credit"); or (2) 30 percent of the present value of the building's qualified basis in the case of newly constructed or substantially rehabilitated housing that is Federally subsidized and existing housing that is substantially rehabilitated (the "30-percent credit"). Where existing housing is substantially rehabilitated, the existing housing is eligible for the 30-percent credit and the qualified rehabilitation expenses (if not Federally subsidized) are eligible for the 70-percent credit.

Calculation of the applicable percentage

In general

The credit percentage for a low-income building is set for the earlier of: (1) the month the building is placed in service; or (2) at the election of the taxpayer, (a) the month the taxpayer and the housing credit agency enter into a binding agreement with respect to such building for a credit allocation, or (b) in the case of a tax-exempt bond-financed project for which no credit allocation is required, the month in which the tax-exempt bonds are issued.

These credit percentages (used for the 70-percent credit and 30-percent credit) are adjusted monthly by the IRS on a discounted after-tax basis (assuming a 28-percent tax rate) based on the average of the Applicable Federal Rates for mid-term and long-term obligations for the month the building is placed in service. The discounting formula assumes that each credit is received on the last day of each year and that the present value is computed on the last day of the first year. In a project consisting of two or more buildings placed in service in different months, a separate credit percentage may apply to each building.

Special rule

Under this rule the applicable percentage is set at a minimum of 9 percent for newly constructed non-Federally subsidized buildings placed in service after July 30, 2008, and before January 1, 2015.

21. Extension of military housing allowance exclusion for determining whether a tenant in certain counties is low-income (sec. 132 of the Act and secs. 42 and 142 of the Code)

To be eligible for the low-income housing credit, a qualified low-income building must be part of a qualified low-income housing project. In general, a qualified low-income housing project is defined as a project that satisfies one of two tests at the election of the taxpayer. The first test is met if 20 percent or more of the residential units in the project are both rent-restricted, and occupied by individuals whose income is 50 percent or less of area median gross income (the "20-50 test"). The second test is met if 40 percent or more of the residential units in such project are both rent-restricted, and occupied by individuals whose income is 60 percent or less of area median gross income (the "40-60 test"). These income figures are adjusted for family size.

Rule for income determinations before July 30, 2008 and on or after January 1, 2015

The recipients of the military basic housing allowance must include these amounts for purposes of low-income credit eligibility income test, as described above.

Special rule for income determination before January 1, 2015

Under the provision the basic housing allowance (i.e., payments under 37 U.S.C. sec. 403) is not included in income for the low-income credit income eligibility rules with respect to qualified buildings. A qualified building is defined as any building located in:

1. any county which contains a qualified military installation to which the number of members of the Armed Forces assigned to units based out of such qualified military installation has increased by 20 percent or more as of June 1, 2008, over the personnel level on December 31, 2005; and

2. any counties adjacent to a county described in (1), above.

For these purposes, a qualified military installation is any military installation or facility with at least 1000 members of the Armed Forces assigned to it.⁴⁷⁴

The provision applies to income determinations: (1) made after July 30, 2008, and before January 1, 2015, in the case of qualified buildings which received credit allocations on or before July 30, 2008, or qualified buildings placed in service on or before July 30, 2008, to the extent a credit allocation was not required with respect to such building by reason of 42(h)(4) (i.e., such qualified building was at least 50 percent tax-exempt bond financed with bonds subject to the private activity bond volume cap) but only with respect to bonds issued before July 30, 2008; and (2) made after July 30, 2008, in the case of qualified buildings which received credit allocations after July 30, 2008 and before January 1, 2015, or qualified buildings placed in service after July 30, 2008, and before January 1, 2015, to the extent a credit allocation was not required with respect to such qualified building by reason of 42(h)(4) (i.e., such qualified building was at least 50 percent tax-exempt bond financed with bonds subject to the private activity bond volume cap) but only with respect to bonds issued after July 30, 2008, and before January 1, 2015.

22. Extension of RIC qualified investment entity treatment under FIRPTA (sec. 133 of the Act and secs. 897 and 1445 of the Code)

A USRPI includes stock or a beneficial interest in any domestic corporation unless such corporation has not been a U.S. real property holding corporation (as defined) during the testing period. In general, if any class of stock of a corporation is regularly traded on an established securities market, stock of such class shall be treated as a USRPI only in the case of a person who, at some time during the testing period, held more than 5 percent of such class of stock.⁴⁷⁵ A USRPI also does not include an interest in a domestically controlled "qualified investment entity." A distribution from a "qualified investment entity" that is attributable to the sale of a USRPI is subject to tax under FIRPTA, however, unless the distribution is with respect to an interest that is regularly traded on an established securities market located in the United States and the recipient foreign corporation or nonresident alien individual did not hold more than five percent ⁴⁷⁶ of that class of stock or beneficial interest within the one-year period ending on the date of distribution.⁴⁷⁷ Special rules apply to situations involving tiers of qualified investment entities.

The term "qualified investment entity" includes a real estate investment trust ("REIT") and also includes a regulated investment company ("RIC") that meets certain requirements, although the inclusion of a RIC in that definition does not apply for certain purposes after December 31, 2014.⁴⁷⁸

The provision does not apply with respect to the withholding requirement under section 1445 for any payment made before the date of enactment (December 18, 2015), but a RIC that withheld and remitted tax under section 1445 on distributions made after December 31, 2014, and before the date of enactment is not liable to the distributee with respect to such withheld and remitted amounts.

A qualified CDE is any domestic corporation or partnership: (1) whose primary mission is serving or providing investment capital for low-income communities or low-income persons; (2) that maintains accountability to residents of low-income communities by their representation on any governing board of or any advisory board to the CDE; and (3) that is certified by the Secretary as being a qualified CDE.⁴⁸³ A qualified equity investment means stock (other than nonqualified preferred stock) in a corporation or a capital interest in a partnership that is acquired at its original issue directly (or through an underwriter) from a CDE for cash, and includes an investment of a subsequent purchaser if such investment was a qualified equity investment in the hands of the prior holder.⁴⁸⁴ Substantially all of the investment proceeds must be used by the CDE to make qualified low-income community investments and the investment must be designated as a qualified equity investment by the CDE. For this purpose, qualified low-income community investments include: (1) capital or equity investments in, or loans to, qualified active low-income community businesses; (2) certain financial counseling and other services to businesses and residents in low-income communities; (3) the purchase from another CDE of any loan made by such entity that is a qualified low-income community investment; or (4) an equity investment in, or loan to, another CDE.⁴⁸⁵

A "low-income community" is a population census tract with either (1) a poverty rate of at least 20 percent or (2) median family income which does not exceed 80 percent of the greater of metropolitan area median family income or statewide median family income (for a non-metropolitan census tract, does not exceed 80 percent of statewide median family income). In the case of a population census tract located within a high migration rural county, low-income is defined by reference to 85 percent (as opposed to 80 percent) of statewide median family income.⁴⁸⁶ For this purpose, a high migration rural county is any county that, during the 20-year period ending with the year in which the most recent census was conducted, has a net out-migration of inhabitants from the county of at least 10 percent of the population of the county at the begin-ning of such period.

The Secretary is authorized to designate "targeted populations" as low-income communities for purposes of the new markets tax credit.⁴⁸⁷ For this purpose, a "targeted population" is defined by reference to section 103(20) of the Riegle Community Development and Regulatory Improvement Act of 1994⁴⁸⁸ (the "Act") to mean individuals, or an identifiable group of individuals, including an Indian tribe, who are low-income persons or otherwise lack adequate access to loans or equity investments. Section 103(17) of the Act provides that "low-income" means (1) for a targeted population within a metropolitan area, less than 80 percent of the area median family income; and (2) for a targeted population within a non-metropolitan area, less than the greater of -- 80 percent of the area median family income, or 80 percent of the statewide non-metro-politan area median family income.⁴⁸⁹ A targeted population is not required to be within any census tract. In addition, a population census tract with a population of less than 2,000 is treated as a low-income community for purposes of the credit if such tract is within an empowerment zone, the designation of which is in effect under section 1391 of the Code, and is contiguous to one or more low-income communities.

A qualified active low-income community business is defined as a business that satisfies, with respect to a taxable year, the following requirements: (1) at least 50 percent of the total gross income of the business is derived from the active conduct of trade or business activities in any low-income community; (2) a substantial portion of the tangible property of the business is used in a low-income community; (3) a substantial portion of the services performed for the business by its employees is performed in a low-income community; and (4) less than five percent of the average of the aggregate unadjusted bases of the property of the business is attributable to certain financial property or to certain collectibles.⁴⁹⁰

The maximum annual amount of qualified equity investments was $3.5 million for calendar years 2010, 2011, 2012, 2013, and 2014. The new markets tax credit expired on December 31, 2014. No amount of unused allocation limitation may be carried to any calendar year after 2019.

2. Extension and modification of work opportunity tax credit (sec. 142 of the Act and secs. 51 and 52 of the Code)

The work opportunity tax credit is available on an elective basis for employers hiring individuals from one or more of nine targeted groups. The amount of the credit available to an employer is determined by the amount of qualified wages paid by the employer. Generally, qualified wages consist of wages attributable to service rendered by a member of a targeted group during the one-year period beginning with the day the individual begins work for the employer (two years in the case of an individual in the long-term family assistance recipient category).

Targeted groups eligible for the credit

Generally, an employer is eligible for the credit only for qualified wages paid to members of a targeted group.

(1) Families receiving TANF

An eligible recipient is an individual certified by a designated local employment agency (e.g., a State employment agency) as being a member of a family eligible to receive benefits under the Temporary Assistance for Needy Families Program ("TANF") for a period of at least nine months part of which is during the 18-month period ending on the hiring date. For these purposes, members of the family are defined to include only those individuals taken into account for purposes of determining eligibility for the TANF.

(2) Qualified veteran

Prior to enactment of the "VOW to Hire Heroes Act of 2011" (the "VOW Act"),⁴⁹¹ there were two subcategories of qualified veterans to whom wages paid by an employer were eligible for the credit. Employers who hired veterans who were eligible to receive assistance under a supplemental nutritional assistance program were entitled to a maximum credit of 40 percent of $6,000 of qualified first-year wages paid to such individual.⁴⁹² Employers who hired veterans who were entitled to compensation for a service-connected disability were entitled to a maximum wage credit of 40 percent of $12,000 of qualified first-year wages paid to such individual.⁴⁹³

The VOW Act modified the work opportunity credit with respect to qualified veterans, by adding additional subcategories. There are now five subcategories of qualified veterans: (1) in the case of veterans who were eligible to receive assistance under a supplemental nutritional assistance program (for at least a three month period during the year prior to the hiring date) the employer is entitled to a maximum credit of 40 percent of $6,000 of qualified first-year wages; (2) in the case of a qualified veteran who is entitled to compensation for a service connected disability, who is hired within one year of discharge, the employer is entitled to a maximum credit of 40 percent of $12,000 of qualified first-year wages; (3) in the case of a qualified veteran who is entitled to compensation for a service connected disability, and who has been unemployed for an aggregate of at least six months during the one year period ending on the hiring date, the employer is entitled to a maximum credit of 40 percent of $24,000 of qualified first-year wages; (4) in the case of a qualified veteran unemployed for at least four weeks but less than six months (whether or not consecutive) during the one-year period ending on the date of hiring, the maximum credit equals 40 percent of $6,000 of qualified first-year wages; and (5) in the case of a qualified veteran unemployed for at least six months (whether or not consecutive) during the one-year period ending on the date of hiring, the maximum credit equals 40 percent of $14,000 of qualified first-year wages.

A veteran is an individual who has served on active duty (other than for training) in the Armed Forces for more than 180 days or who has been discharged or released from active duty in the Armed Forces for a service-connected disability. However, any individual who has served for a period of more than 90 days during which the individual was on active duty (other than for training) is not a qualified veteran if any of this active duty occurred during the 60-day period ending on the date the individual was hired by the employer. This latter rule is intended to prevent employers who hire current members of the armed services (or those departed from service within the last 60 days) from receiving the credit.

(3) Qualified ex-felon

A qualified ex-felon is an individual certified as: (1) having been convicted of a felony under any State or Federal law; and (2) having a hiring date within one year of release from prison or the date of conviction.

(4) Designated community resident

A designated community resident is an individual certified as being at least age 18 but not yet age 40 on the hiring date and as having a principal place of abode within an empowerment zone, enterprise community, renewal community or a rural renewal community. For these purposes, a rural renewal county is a county outside a metropolitan statistical area (as defined by the Office of Management and Budget) which had a net population loss during the five-year periods 1990-1994 and 1995-1999. Qualified wages do not include wages paid or incurred for services performed after the individual moves outside an empowerment zone, enterprise community, renewal community or a rural renewal community.

(5) Vocational rehabilitation referral

A vocational rehabilitation referral is an individual who is certified by a designated local agency as an individual who has a physical or mental disability that constitutes a substantial handicap to employment and who has been referred to the employer while receiving, or after completing: (a) vocational rehabilitation services under an individualized, written plan for employment under a State plan approved under the Rehabilitation Act of 1973; (b) under a rehabilitation plan for veterans carried out under Chapter 31 of Title 38, U.S. Code; or (c) an individual work plan developed and implemented by an employment network pursuant to subsection (g) of section 1148 of the Social Security Act. Certification will be provided by the designated local employment agency upon assurances from the vocational rehabilitation agency that the employee has met the above conditions.

(6) Qualified summer youth employee

A qualified summer youth employee is an individual: (1) who performs services during any 90-day period between May 1 and September 15; (2) who is certified by the designated local agency as being 16 or 17 years of age on the hiring date; (3) who has not been an employee of that employer before; and (4) who is certified by the designated local agency as having a principal place of abode within an empowerment zone, enterprise community, or renewal community. As with designated community residents, no credit is available on wages paid or incurred for service performed after the qualified summer youth moves outside of an empowerment zone, enterprise community, or renewal community. If, after the end of the 90-day period, the employer continues to employ a youth who was certified during the 90-day period as a member of another targeted group, the limit on qualified first-year wages will take into account wages paid to the youth while a qualified summer youth employee.

(7) Qualified supplemental nutrition assistance program benefits recipient

A qualified supplemental nutrition assistance program benefits recipient is an individual at least age 18 but not yet age 40 certified by a designated local employment agency as being a member of a family receiving assistance under a food and nutrition program under the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008 for a period of at least six months ending on the hiring date. In the case of families that cease to be eligible for food and nutrition assistance under section 6(o) of the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008, the six-month requirement is replaced with a requirement that the family has been receiving food and nutrition assistance for at least three of the five months ending on the date of hire. For these purposes, members of the family are defined to include only those individuals taken into account for purposes of determining eligibility for a food and nutrition assistance program under the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008.

(8) Qualified SSI recipient

A qualified SSI recipient is an individual designated by a local agency as receiving supplemental security income ("SSI") benefits under Title XVI of the Social Security Act for any month ending within the 60-day period ending on the hiring date.

(9) Long-term family assistance recipient

A qualified long-term family assistance recipient is an individual certified by a designated local agency as being: (1) a member of a family that has received family assistance for at least 18 consecutive months ending on the hiring date; (2) a member of a family that has received such family assistance for a total of at least 18 months (whether or not consecutive) after August 5, 1997 (the date of enactment of the welfare-to-work tax credit) if the individual is hired within two years after the date that the 18-month total is reached; or (3) a member of a family who is no longer eligible for family assistance because of either Federal or State time limits, if the individual is hired within two years after the Federal or State time limits made the family ineligible for family assistance.

Qualified wages

Generally, qualified wages are defined as cash wages paid by the employer to a member of a targeted group. The employer's deduction for wages is reduced by the amount of the credit.

For purposes of the credit, generally, wages are defined by reference to the FUTA definition of wages contained in sec. 3306(b) (without regard to the dollar limitation therein contained). Special rules apply in the case of certain agricultural labor and certain railroad labor.

Calculation of the credit

The credit available to an employer for qualified wages paid to members of all targeted groups except for long-term family assistance recipients equals 40 percent (25 percent for employment of 400 hours or less) of qualified first-year wages. Generally, qualified first-year wages are qualified wages (not in excess of $6,000) attributable to service rendered by a member of a targeted group during the one-year period beginning with the day the individual began work for the employer. Therefore, the maximum credit per employee is $2,400 (40 percent of the first $6,000 of qualified first-year wages). With respect to qualified summer youth employees, the maximum credit is $1,200 (40 percent of the first $3,000 of qualified first-year wages). Except for long-term family assistance recipients, no credit is allowed for second-year wages.

In the case of long-term family assistance recipients, the credit equals 40 percent (25 percent for employment of 400 hours or less) of $10,000 for qualified first-year wages and 50 percent of the first $10,000 of qualified second-year wages. Generally, qualified second-year wages are qualified wages (not in excess of $10,000) attributable to service rendered by a member of the long-term family assistance category during the one-year period beginning on the day after the one-year period beginning with the day the individual began work for the employer. Therefore, the maximum credit per employee is $9,000 (40 percent of the first $10,000 of qualified first-year wages plus 50 percent of the first $10,000 of qualified second-year wages).

For calculation of the credit with respect to qualified veterans, see the description of "qualified veteran" above.

Certification rules

Generally, an individual is not treated as a member of a targeted group unless: (1) on or before the day on which an individual begins work for an employer, the employer has received a certification from a designated local agency that such individual is a member of a targeted group; or (2) on or before the day an individual is offered employment with the employer, a prescreening notice is completed by the employer with respect to such individual, and not later than the 28th day after the individual begins work for the employer, the employer submits such notice, signed by the employer and the individual under penalties of perjury, to the designated local agency as part of a written request for certification. For these purposes, a prescreening notice is a document (in such form as the Secretary may prescribe) which contains information provided by the individual on the basis of which the employer believes that the individual is a member of a targeted group.

An otherwise qualified unemployed veteran is treated as certified by the designated local agency as having aggregate periods of unemployment (whichever is applicable under the qualified veterans rules described above) if such veteran is certified by such agency as being in receipt of unemployment compensation under a State or Federal law for such applicable periods. The Secretary of the Treasury is authorized to provide alternative methods of certification for unemployed veterans.

Minimum employment period

No credit is allowed for qualified wages paid to employees who work less than 120 hours in the first year of employment.

Qualified tax-exempt organizations employing qualified veterans

The credit is not available to qualified tax-exempt organizations other than those employing qualified veterans. The special rules, described below, were enacted in the VOW Act.

If a qualified tax-exempt organization employs a qualified veteran (as described above) a tax credit against the FICA taxes of the organization is allowed on the wages of the qualified veteran which are paid for the veteran's services in furtherance of the activities related to the function or purpose constituting the basis of the organization's exemption under section 501.

The credit available to such tax-exempt employer for qualified wages paid to a qualified veteran equals 26 percent (16.25 percent for employment of 400 hours or less) of qualified first-year wages. The amount of qualified first-year wages eligible for the credit is the same as those for non-tax-exempt employers (i.e., $6,000, $12,000, $14,000 or $24,000, depending on the category of qualified veteran).

A qualified tax-exempt organization means an employer that is described in section 501(c) and exempt from tax under section 501(a).

The Social Security Trust Funds are held harmless from the effects of this provision by a transfer from the Treasury General Fund.

Treatment of possessions

The VOW Act provided a reimbursement mechanism for the U.S. possessions (American Samoa, Guam, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, and the United States Virgin Islands). The Secretary of the Treasury is to pay to each mirror code possession (Guam, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, and the United States Virgin Islands) an amount equal to the loss to that possession as a result of the VOW Act changes to the qualified veterans rules. Similarly, the Secretary of the Treasury is to pay to each non-mirror Code possession (American Samoa and the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico) the amount that the Secretary estimates as being equal to the loss to that possession that would have occurred as a result of the VOW Act changes if a mirror code tax system had been in effect in that possession. The Secretary will make this payment to a non-mirror Code possession only if that possession establishes to the satisfaction of the Secretary that the possession has implemented (or, at the discretion of the Secretary, will implement) an income tax benefit that is substantially equivalent to the qualified veterans credit allowed under the VOW Act modifications.

An employer that is allowed a credit against U.S. tax under the VOW Act with respect to a qualified veteran must reduce the amount of the credit claimed by the amount of any credit (or, in the case of a non-mirror Code possession, another tax benefit) that the employer claims against its possession income tax.

Other rules

The work opportunity tax credit is not allowed for wages paid to a relative or dependent of the taxpayer. No credit is allowed for wages paid to an individual who is a more than fifty-percent owner of the entity. Similarly, wages paid to replacement workers during a strike or lockout are not eligible for the work opportunity tax credit. Wages paid to any employee during any period for which the employer received on-the-job training program payments with respect to that employee are not eligible for the work opportunity tax credit. The work opportunity tax credit generally is not allowed for wages paid to individuals who had previously been employed by the employer. In addition, many other technical rules apply.

Expiration

The work opportunity tax credit is not available for individuals who begin work for an employer after December 31, 2014.

The provision relating to wages paid to qualified long-term unemployment recipients applies to individuals who begin work for the employer after December 31, 2015.

3. Extension and modification of bonus depreciation (sec. 143 of the Act and sec. 168(k) of the Code)

An additional first-year depreciation deduction is allowed equal to 50 percent of the adjusted basis of qualified property acquired and placed in service before January 1, 2015 (January 1, 2016 for certain longer-lived and transportation property).⁴⁹⁴

The additional first-year depreciation deduction is allowed for both the regular tax and the alternative minimum tax ("AMT"),⁴⁹⁵ but is not allowed in computing earnings and profits.⁴⁹⁶ The basis of the property and the depreciation allowances in the year of purchase and later years are appropriately adjusted to reflect the additional first-year depreciation deduction.⁴⁹⁷ The amount of the additional first-year depreciation deduction is not affected by a short taxable year.⁴⁹⁸ The taxpayer may elect out of additional first-year depreciation for any class of property for any taxable year.⁴⁹⁹

The interaction of the additional first-year depreciation allowance with the otherwise applicable depreciation allowance may be illustrated as follows. Assume that in 2014, a taxpayer purchased new depreciable property and placed it in service.⁵⁰⁰ The property's cost is $10,000, and it is five-year property subject to the 200 percent declining balance method and half-year convention. The amount of additional first-year depreciation allowed is $5,000. The remaining $5,000 of the cost of the property is depreciable under the rules applicable to five-year property. Thus, $1,000 also is allowed as a depreciation deduction in 2014.⁵⁰¹ The total depreciation deduction with respect to the property for 2014 is $6,000. The remaining $4,000 adjusted basis of the property generally is recovered through otherwise applicable depreciation rules.

Property qualifying for the additional first-year depreciation deduction must meet all of the following requirements.⁵⁰² First, the property must be: (1) property to which the modified accelerated cost recovery system ("MACRS") applies with an applicable recovery period of 20 years or less; (2) water utility property (as defined in section 168(e)(5)); (3) computer software other than computer software covered by section 197; or (4) qualified leasehold improvement property.⁵⁰³ Second, the original use⁵⁰⁴ of the property must commence with the taxpayer.⁵⁰⁵ Third, the taxpayer must acquire the property within the applicable time period (as described below). Finally, the property must be placed in service before January 1, 2015. An extension of the placed-in-service date of one year (i.e., before January 1, 2016) is provided for certain property with a recovery period of 10 years or longer and certain transportation property.⁵⁰⁶

To qualify, property must be acquired (1) before January 1, 2015, or (2) pursuant to a binding written contract which was entered before January 1, 2015. With respect to property that is manufactured, constructed, or produced by the taxpayer for use by the taxpayer, the taxpayer must begin the manufacture, construction, or production of the property before January 1, 2015.⁵⁰⁷ Property that is manufactured, constructed, or produced for the taxpayer by another person under a contract that is entered into prior to the manufacture, construction, or production of the property is considered to be manufactured, constructed, or produced by the taxpayer.⁵⁰⁸ For property eligible for the extended placed-in-service date, a special rule limits the amount of costs eligible for the additional first-year depreciation. With respect to such property, only the portion of the basis that is properly attributable to the costs incurred before January 1, 2015 ("progress expenditures") is eligible for the additional first-year depreciation deduction.⁵⁰⁹

The limitation under section 280F on the amount of depreciation deductions allowed with respect to certain passenger automobiles is increased in the first year by $8,000 for automobiles that qualify (and for which the taxpayer does not elect out of the additional first-year deduction).⁵¹⁰ While the underlying section 280F limitation is indexed for inflation,⁵¹¹ the additional $8,000 amount is not indexed for inflation.

Qualified leasehold improvement property

Qualified leasehold improvement property is any improvement to an interior portion of a building that is nonresidential real property, provided certain requirements are met.⁵¹² The improvement must be made under or pursuant to a lease either by the lessee (or sublessee), or by the lessor, of that portion of the building to be occupied exclusively by the lessee (or sublessee). The improvement must be placed in service more than three years after the date the building was first placed in service. Qualified leasehold improvement property does not include any improvement for which the expenditure is attributable to the enlargement of the building, any elevator or escalator, any structural component benefiting a common area, or the internal structural framework of the building. For these purposes, a binding commitment to enter into a lease is treated as a lease, and the parties to the commitment are treated as lessor and lessee. A lease between related persons is not considered a lease for this purpose.

Special rule for long-term contracts

In general, in the case of a long-term contract, the taxable income from the contract is determined under the percentage-of-completion method.⁵¹³ Solely for purposes of determining the percentage of completion under section 460(b)(1)(A), the cost of qualified property with a MACRS recovery period of seven years or less is taken into account as a cost allocated to the contract as if bonus depreciation had not been enacted for property placed in service before January 1, 2015 (January 1, 2016 in the case of certain longer-lived and transportation property).⁵¹⁴

Election to accelerate AMT credits in lieu of bonus depreciation

A corporation otherwise eligible for additional first-year depreciation may elect to claim additional AMT credits in lieu of claiming additional depreciation with respect to "eligible qualified property."⁵¹⁵ In the case of a corporation making this election, the straight line method is used for the regular tax and the AMT with respect to eligible qualified property.⁵¹⁶

Generally, an election under this provision for a taxable year applies to subsequent taxable years. However, each time the provision has been extended, a corporation which has previously made an election has been allowed to elect not to claim additional minimum tax credits, or, if no election had previously been made, to make an election to claim additional credits with respect to property subject to the extension.⁵¹⁷

A corporation making an election increases the tax liability limitation under section 53(c) on the use of minimum tax credits by the bonus depreciation amount.⁵¹⁸ The aggregate increase in credits allowable by reason of the increased limitation is treated as refundable.⁵¹⁹

The bonus depreciation amount generally is equal to 20 percent of bonus depreciation for eligible qualified property that could be claimed as a deduction absent an election under this provision.⁵²⁰ As originally enacted, the bonus depreciation amount for all taxable years was limited to the lesser of (1) $30 million, or (2) six percent of the minimum tax credits allocable to the adjusted net minimum tax imposed for taxable years beginning before January 1, 2006.⁵²¹ However, extensions of this provision have provided that this limitation applies separately to property subject to each extension.

All corporations treated as a single employer under section 52(a) are treated as one taxpayer for purposes of the limitation, as well as for electing the application of this provision.⁵²²

In the case of a corporation making an election which is a partner in a partnership, for purposes of determining the electing partner's distributive share of partnership items, bonus depreciation does not apply to any eligible qualified property and the straight line method is used with respect to that property.⁵²³

Preproductive period costs of orchards, groves, and vineyards

An orchard, vineyard or grove generally produces annual crops of fruits (e.g., apples, avocadoes, or grapes) or nuts (e.g., pecans, pistachios, or walnuts). During the development period of plants, a farmer generally incurs costs to cultivate, spray, fertilize and irrigate the plants to their crop-producing stage (i.e., preproductive period costs).⁵²⁴ Preproductive period costs may be deducted or capitalized, depending on the preproductive period of the plant,⁵²⁵ as well as whether the farmer elects to have section 263A not apply.⁵²⁶ After the plants start producing fruit or nuts, a farmer can depreciate the capitalized costs of the plants (i.e., the acquisition costs of the seeds, seedlings, or plants and their original planting which were capitalized when incurred, as well as the preproductive period costs if section 263A applied).⁵²⁷ A 10-year recovery period is assigned to any tree or vine bearing fruits or nuts.⁵²⁸ A seven-year recovery period generally applies to other plants bearing fruits or nuts.⁵²⁹

The provision extends and modifies the additional first-year depreciation deduction for five years, generally through 2019 (through 2020 for certain longer-lived and transportation property ("LLTP"⁵³⁰)).⁵³¹ The 50-percent allowance is phased down for property placed in service in taxable years beginning after 2017 (after 2018 for LLTP). Under the provision, the bonus depreciation percentage rates are as follows:

                                     Bonus Depreciation Percentage

After 2015, the provision allows additional first-year depreciation for qualified improvement property without regard to whether the improvements are property subject to a lease, and also removes the requirement that the improvement must be placed in service more than three years after the date the building was first placed in service.

The provision also extends the special rule for the allocation of bonus depreciation to a long-term contract for five years to property placed in service before January 1, 2020 (January 1, 2021, in the case of certain longer-lived and transportation property).

Expansion of election to accelerate AMT credits in lieu of bonus depreciation

The provision extends, with modifications, the election to increase the AMT credit limitation in lieu of bonus depreciation.

For taxable years ending after December 31, 2014, and before January 1, 2016, a bonus depreciation amount, maximum amount, and maximum increase amount is computed separately with respect to property to which the extension of additional first-year depreciation applies ("round 5 extension property").⁵³⁴ A corporation that has an election in effect with respect to round 4 extension property claiming minimum tax credits in lieu of bonus depreciation is treated as having an election in effect for round 5 extension property, unless the corporation elects otherwise. The provision also allows a corporation that does not have an election in effect with respect to round 4 extension property to elect to claim minimum tax credits in lieu of bonus depreciation for round 5 extension property. A separate bonus depreciation amount, maximum amount, and maximum increase amount is computed and applied to round 5 extension property.⁵³⁵

For taxable years ending after December 31, 2015, the bonus depreciation amount for a taxable year (as defined under present law with respect to all qualified property) is limited to the lesser of (1) 50 percent of the minimum tax credit for the first taxable year ending after December 31, 2015 (determined before the application of any tax liability limitation), or (2) the minimum tax credit for the taxable year allocable to the adjusted net minimum tax imposed for taxable years ending before January 1, 2016 (determined before the application of any tax liability limitation and determined on a first-in, first-out basis).

The provision also provides that in the case of a partnership having a single corporate partner owning (directly or indirectly) more than 50 percent of the capital and profits interests in the partnership, each partner takes into account its distributive share of partnership depreciation in determining its bonus depreciation amount.

Special rules for certain plants

The provision provides an election for certain plants bearing fruits and nuts. Under the election, the applicable percentage of the adjusted basis of a specified plant which is planted or grafted after December 31, 2015 and before January 1, 2020, is deductible for regular tax and AMT purposes in the year planted or grafted by the taxpayer, and the adjusted basis is reduced by the amount of the deduction.⁵³⁶ The percentage is 50 percent for 2016, and then is phased down by 10 percent per calendar year beginning in 2018. Thus, the percentage for 2018 is 40 percent, and for 2019 is 30 percent. A specified plant is any tree or vine that bears fruits or nuts, and any other plant that will have more than one yield of fruits or nuts and generally has a preproductive period of more than two years from planting or grafting to the time it begins bearing fruits or nuts.⁵³⁷ The election is revocable only with the consent of the Secretary, and if the election is made with respect to any specified plant, such plant is not treated as qualified property eligible for bonus depreciation in the subsequent taxable year in which it is placed in service.

The modifications relating to bonus depreciation apply to property placed in service after December 31, 2015, in taxable years ending after such date.

The modifications relating to the election to accelerate AMT credits in lieu of claiming bonus depreciation generally applies to taxable years ending after December 31, 2015. For a taxable year beginning before January 1, 2016, and ending after December 31, 2015, a transitional rule applies for purposes of determining the amount eligible for the election to claim additional AMT credits. The transitional rule applies the present-law limitations to property placed in service in 2015 and the revised limitations to property placed in service in 2016.

The provision relating to certain plants bearing fruits and nuts applies to specified plants planted or grafted after December 31, 2015.

4. Extension of look-through treatment of payments between related controlled foreign corporations under foreign personal holding company rules (sec. 144 of the Act and sec. 954(c)(6) of the Code)

Subpart F income includes foreign base company income. One category of foreign base company income is foreign personal holding company income. For subpart F purposes, foreign personal holding company income generally includes dividends, interest, rents, and royalties, among other types of income. There are several exceptions to these rules. For example, foreign personal holding company income does not include dividends and interest received by a CFC from a related corporation organized and operating in the same foreign country in which the CFC is organized, or rents and royalties received by a CFC from a related corporation for the use of property within the country in which the CFC is organized. Interest, rent, and royalty payments do not qualify for this exclusion to the extent that such payments reduce the subpart F income of the payor. In addition, subpart F income of a CFC does not include any item of income from sources within the United States that is effectively connected with the conduct by such CFC of a trade or business within the United States ("ECI") unless such item is exempt from taxation (or is subject to a reduced rate of tax) pursuant to a tax treaty.

The "look-through rule"

Under the "look-through rule" (sec. 954(c)(6)), dividends, interest (including factoring income that is treated as equivalent to interest under section 954(c)(1)(E)), rents, and royalties received or accrued by one CFC from a related CFC are not treated as foreign personal holding company income to the extent attributable or properly allocable to income of the payor that is neither subpart F income nor treated as ECI. For this purpose, a related CFC is a CFC that controls or is controlled by the other CFC, or a CFC that is controlled by the same person or persons that control the other CFC. Ownership of more than 50 percent of the CFC's stock (by vote or value) constitutes control for these purposes.

The Secretary is authorized to prescribe regulations that are necessary or appropriate to carry out the look-through rule, including such regulations as are necessary or appropriate to prevent the abuse of the purposes of such rule.

The look-through rule applies to taxable years of foreign corporations beginning after December 31, 2005 and before January 1, 2015, and to taxable years of U.S. shareholders with or within which such taxable years of foreign corporations end.

The amount of discharge of indebtedness excluded from income by an insolvent debtor not in a Title 11 bankruptcy case cannot exceed the amount by which the debtor is insolvent. In the case of a discharge in bankruptcy or where the debtor is insolvent, any reduction in basis may not exceed the excess of the aggregate bases of properties held by the taxpayer immediately after the discharge over the aggregate of the liabilities of the taxpayer immediately after the discharge.

For all taxpayers, the amount of discharge of indebtedness generally is equal to the difference between the adjusted issue price of the debt being cancelled and the amount used to satisfy the debt. These rules generally apply to the exchange of an old obligation for a new obligation, including a modification of indebtedness that is treated as an exchange (a debt-for-debt exchange).

Qualified principal residence indebtedness

An exclusion from gross income is provided for any discharge of indebtedness income by reason of a discharge (in whole or in part) of qualified principal residence indebtedness. Qualified principal residence indebtedness means acquisition indebtedness (within the meaning of section 163(h)(3)(B), except that the dollar limitation is $2 million) with respect to the taxpayer's principal residence. Acquisition indebtedness with respect to a principal residence generally means indebtedness which is incurred in the acquisition, construction, or substantial improvement of the principal residence of the individual and is secured by the residence. It also includes refinancing of such indebtedness to the extent the amount of the indebtedness resulting from such refinancing does not exceed the amount of the refinanced indebtedness. For these purposes, the term "principal residence" has the same meaning as under section 121 of the Code.

If, immediately before the discharge, only a portion of a discharged indebtedness is qualified principal residence indebtedness, the exclusion applies only to so much of the amount discharged as exceeds the portion of the debt which is not qualified principal residence indebtedness. Thus, assume that a principal residence is secured by an indebtedness of $1 million, of which $800,000 is qualified principal residence indebtedness. If the residence is sold for $700,000 and $300,000 debt is discharged, then only $100,000 of the amount discharged may be excluded from gross income under the qualified principal residence indebtedness exclusion.

The basis of the individual's principal residence is reduced by the amount excluded from income under the provision.

The qualified principal residence indebtedness exclusion does not apply to a taxpayer in a Title 11 case; instead the general exclusion rules apply. In the case of an insolvent taxpayer not in a Title 11 case, the qualified principal residence indebtedness exclusion applies unless the taxpayer elects to have the general exclusion rules apply instead.

The exclusion does not apply to the discharge of a loan if the discharge is on account of services performed for the lender or any other factor not directly related to a decline in the value of the residence or to the financial condition of the taxpayer.

The exclusion for qualified principal residence indebtedness is effective for discharges of indebtedness before January 1, 2015.

The provision relating to discharges pursuant to a written arrangement applies to discharges of indebtedness after December 31, 2015.

2. Extension of mortgage insurance premiums treated as qualified residence interest (sec. 152 of the Act and sec. 163 of the Code)

Present law provides that qualified residence interest is deductible notwithstanding the general rule that personal interest is nondeductible.⁵⁴⁰

Acquisition indebtedness and home equity indebtedness Qualified residence interest is interest on acquisition indebtedness and home equity indebtedness with respect to a principal and a second residence of the taxpayer. The maximum amount of home equity indebtedness is $100,000. The maximum amount of acquisition indebtedness is $1 million. Acquisition indebtedness means debt that is incurred in acquiring, constructing, or substantially improving a qualified residence of the taxpayer, and that is secured by the residence. Home equity indebtedness is debt (other than acquisition indebtedness) that is secured by the taxpayer's principal or second residence, to the extent the aggregate amount of such debt does not exceed the difference between the total acquisition indebtedness with respect to the residence, and the fair market value of the residence.

Qualified mortgage insurance

Certain premiums paid or accrued for qualified mortgage insurance by a taxpayer during the taxable year in connection with acquisition indebtedness on a qualified residence of the taxpayer are treated as interest that is qualified residence interest and thus deductible. The amount allowable as a deduction is phased out ratably by 10 percent for each $1,000 (or fraction thereof) by which the taxpayer's adjusted gross income exceeds $100,000 ($500 and $50,000, respectively, in the case of a married individual filing a separate return). Thus, the deduction is not allowed if the taxpayer's adjusted gross income exceeds $109,000 ($54,000 in the case of married individual filing a separate return).

For this purpose, qualified mortgage insurance means mortgage insurance provided by the Department of Veterans Affairs, the Federal Housing Administration, or the Rural Housing Service, and private mortgage insurance (defined in section two of the Homeowners Protection Act of 1998 as in effect on the date of enactment of the provision).

Amounts paid for qualified mortgage insurance that are properly allocable to periods after the close of the taxable year are treated as paid in the period to which they are allocated. No deduction is allowed for the unamortized balance if the mortgage is paid before its term (except in the case of qualified mortgage insurance provided by the Department of Veterans Affairs or Rural Housing Service).

The provision does not apply with respect to any mortgage insurance contract issued before January 1, 2007. The provision terminates for any amount paid or accrued after December 31, 2014, or properly allocable to any period after that date.

Reporting rules apply under the provision.

3. Extension of above-the-line deduction for qualified tuition and related expenses (sec. 153 of the Act and sec. 222 of the Code)

The maximum deduction is $4,000 for an individual whose adjusted gross income for the taxable year does not exceed $65,000 ($130,000 in the case of a joint return), or $2,000 for other individuals whose adjusted gross income does not exceed $80,000 ($160,000 in the case of a joint return). No deduction is allowed for an individual whose adjusted gross income exceeds the relevant adjusted gross income limitations, for a married individual who does not file a joint return, or for an individual with respect to whom a personal exemption deduction may be claimed by another taxpayer for the taxable year. The deduction is not available for taxable years beginning after December 31, 2014.

The amount of qualified tuition and related expenses must be reduced by certain scholarships, educational assistance allowances, and other amounts paid for the benefit of such individual,⁵⁴³ and by the amount of such expenses taken into account for purposes of determining any exclusion from gross income of: (1) income from certain U.S. savings bonds used to pay higher education tuition and fees; and (2) income from a Coverdell education savings account.⁵⁴⁴ Additionally, such expenses must be reduced by the earnings portion (but not the return of principal) of distributions from a qualified tuition program if an exclusion under section 529 is claimed with respect to expenses eligible for the qualified tuition deduction. No deduction is allowed for any expense for which a deduction is otherwise allowed or with respect to an individual for whom a Hope or Lifetime Learning credit is elected for such taxable year.

Qualified wages means wages paid or incurred by an employer for services performed by a qualified employee. A qualified employee means any employee who is an enrolled member of an Indian tribe or the spouse of an enrolled member of an Indian tribe, who performs substantially all of the services within an Indian reservation, and whose principal place of abode while performing such services is on or near the reservation in which the services are performed. An "Indian reservation" is a reservation as defined in section 3(d) of the Indian Financing Act of 1974⁵⁴⁶ or section 4(10) of the Indian Child Welfare Act of 1978.⁵⁴⁷ For purposes of the preceding sentence, section 3(d) is applied by treating "former Indian reservations in Oklahoma" as including only lands that are (1) within the jurisdictional area of an Oklahoma Indian tribe as determined by the Secretary of the Interior, and (2) recognized by such Secretary as an area eligible for trust land status under 25 C.F.R. Part 151 (as in effect on August 5, 1997).

An employee is not treated as a qualified employee for any taxable year of the employer if the total amount of wages paid or incurred by the employer with respect to such employee during the taxable year exceeds an amount determined at an annual rate of $30,000 (which after adjustment for inflation is $45,000 for 2014).⁵⁴⁸ In addition, an employee will not be treated as a qualified employee under certain specific circumstances, such as where the employee is related to the employer (in the case of an individual employer) or to one of the employer's shareholders, partners, or grantors. Similarly, an employee will not be treated as a qualified employee where the employee has more than a five percent ownership interest in the employer. Finally, an employee will not be considered a qualified employee to the extent the employee's services relate to gaming activities or are performed in a building housing such activities.

The wage credit is available for wages paid or incurred in taxable years beginning on or before December 31, 2014.

5. Extension and modification of railroad track maintenance credit (sec. 162 of the Act and sec. 45G of the Code)

Qualified railroad track maintenance expenditures are defined as gross expenditures (whether or not otherwise chargeable to capital account) for maintaining railroad track (including roadbed, bridges, and related track structures) owned or leased as of January 1, 2005, by a Class II or Class III railroad (determined without regard to any consideration for such expenditure given by the Class II or Class III railroad which made the assignment of such track).⁵⁵³

An eligible taxpayer means any Class II or Class III railroad, and any person who transports property using the rail facilities of a Class II or Class III railroad or who furnishes railroad-related property or services to a Class II or Class III railroad, but only with respect to miles of railroad track assigned to such person by such railroad under the provision.⁵⁵⁴

The terms Class II or Class III railroad have the meanings given by the Surface Transportation Board.⁵⁵⁵

The provision also provides that qualified railroad track maintenance expenditures paid or incurred in taxable years beginning after December 31, 2015, are defined as gross expenditures (whether or not otherwise chargeable to capital account) for maintaining railroad track (including roadbed, bridges, and related track structures) owned or leased as of January 1, 2015, by a Class II or Class III railroad (determined without regard to any consideration for such expenditure given by the Class II or Class III railroad which made the assignment of such track).

The modification to the definition of qualified railroad track maintenance expenditures applies to expenditures paid or incurred in taxable years beginning after December 31, 2015.

6. Extension of mine rescue team training credit (sec. 163 of the Act and sec. 45N of the Code)

An eligible employer is any taxpayer which employs individuals as miners in underground mines in the United States.⁵⁵⁸ The term "wages" has the meaning given to such term by section 3306(b)⁵⁵⁹ (determined without regard to any dollar limitation contained in that section).⁵⁶⁰

No deduction is allowed for the portion of the expenses otherwise deductible that is equal to the amount of the credit.⁵⁶¹ The credit does not apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2014.⁵⁶² Additionally, the credit is not allowable for purposes of computing the alternative minimum tax.⁵⁶³

7. Extension of qualified zone academy bonds (sec. 164 of the Act and sec. 54E of the Code)

Interest on State and local governmental bonds generally is excluded from gross income for Federal income tax purposes if the proceeds of the bonds are used to finance direct activities of these governmental units or if the bonds are repaid with revenues of the governmental units. These can include tax-exempt bonds which finance public schools.⁵⁶⁴ An issuer must file with the Internal Revenue Service certain information about the bonds issued in order for that bond issue to be tax-exempt.⁵⁶⁵ Generally, this information return is required to be filed no later the 15th day of the second month after the close of the calendar quarter in which the bonds were issued.

The tax exemption for State and local bonds does not apply to any arbitrage bond.⁵⁶⁶ An arbitrage bond is defined as any bond that is part of an issue if any proceeds of the issue are reasonably expected to be used (or intentionally are used) to acquire higher yielding investments or to replace funds that are used to acquire higher yielding investments.⁵⁶⁷ In general, arbitrage profits may be earned only during specified periods (e.g., defined "temporary periods") before funds are needed for the purpose of the borrowing or on specified types of investments (e.g., "reasonably required reserve or replacement funds"). Subject to limited exceptions, investment profits that are earned during these periods or on such investments must be rebated to the Federal Government.

Qualified zone academy bonds

As an alternative to traditional tax-exempt bonds, State and local governments were given the authority to issue "qualified zone academy bonds."⁵⁶⁸ A total of $400 million of qualified zone academy bonds is authorized to be issued annually in calendar years 1998 through 2008, $1,400 million in 2009 and 2010, and $400 million in 2011, 2012, 2013 and 2014. Each calendar year's bond limitation is allocated to the States according to their respective populations of individuals below the poverty line. Each State, in turn, allocates the bond authority to qualified zone academies within such State.

A taxpayer holding a qualified zone academy bond on the credit allowance date is entitled to a credit. The credit is includible in gross income (as if it were a taxable interest payment on the bond), and may be claimed against regular income tax and alternative minimum tax liability.

Qualified zone academy bonds are a type of qualified tax credit bond and subject to the general rules applicable to qualified tax credit bonds.⁵⁶⁹ The Treasury Department sets the credit rate at a rate estimated to allow issuance of qualified zone academy bonds without discount and without interest cost to the issuer.⁵⁷⁰ The Secretary determines credit rates for tax credit bonds based on general assumptions about credit quality of the class of potential eligible issuers and such other factors as the Secretary deems appropriate. The Secretary may determine credit rates based on general credit market yield indexes and credit ratings. The maximum term of the bond is determined by the Treasury Department, so that the present value of the obligation to repay the principal on the bond is 50 percent of the face value of the bond.

"Qualified zone academy bonds" are defined as any bond issued by a State or local government, provided that (1) at least 100 percent of the available project proceeds are used for the purpose of renovating, providing equipment to, developing course materials for use at, or training teachers and other school personnel in a "qualified zone academy" and (2) private entities have promised to contribute to the qualified zone academy certain equipment, technical assistance or training, employee services, or other property or services with a value equal to at least 10 percent of the bond proceeds.

A school is a "qualified zone academy" if (1) the school is a public school that provides education and training below the college level, (2) the school operates a special academic program in cooperation with businesses to enhance the academic curriculum and increase graduation and employment rates, and (3) either (a) the school is located in an empowerment zone or enterprise community designated under the Code, or (b) it is reasonably expected that at least 35 percent of the students at the school will be eligible for free or reduced-cost lunches under the school lunch program established under the National School Lunch Act.

Under section 6431, an issuer of specified tax credit bonds, may elect to receive a payment in lieu of a credit being allowed to the holder of the bond ("direct-pay bonds"). Section 6431 is not available for qualified zone academy bond allocations from the national limitation for years after 2010 or any carry forward of those allocations.

8. Extension of classification of certain race horses as three-year property (sec. 165 of the Act and sec. 168 of the Code)

9. Extension of seven-year recovery period for motorsports entertainment complexes (sec. 166 of the Act and sec. 168 of the Code)

10. Extension and modification of accelerated depreciation for business property on an Indian reservation (sec. 167 of the Act and sec. 168(j) of the Code)

 3-year property                                        2 years

An "Indian reservation" means a reservation as defined in section 3(d) of the Indian Financing Act of 1974 (25 U.S.C. 1452(d))⁵⁹¹ or section 4(10) of the Indian Child Welfare Act of 1978 (25 U.S.C. 1903(10)).⁵⁹² For purposes of the preceding sentence, section 3(d) is applied by treating "former Indian reservations in Oklahoma" as including only lands that are (1) within the jurisdictional area of an Oklahoma Indian tribe as determined by the Secretary of the Interior, and (2) recognized by such Secretary as an area eligible for trust land status under 25 C.F.R. part 151 (as in effect on August 5, 1997).⁵⁹³

The depreciation deduction allowed for regular tax purposes is also allowed for purposes of the alternative minimum tax.⁵⁹⁴ The accelerated depreciation for qualified Indian reservation property is available with respect to property placed in service on or before December 31, 2014.⁵⁹⁵

The provision also provides that a taxpayer may annually make an irrevocable election out of section 168(j) on a class-by-class basis for qualified Indian reservation property placed in service in taxable years beginning after December 31, 2015.

The modification providing an election out of section 168(j) applies to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2015.

11. Extension of election to expense mine safety equipment (sec. 168 of the Act and sec. 179E of the Code)

Advanced mine safety equipment property means any of the following: (1) emergency communication technology or devices used to allow a miner to maintain constant communication with an individual who is not in the mine; (2) electronic identification and location devices that allow individuals not in the mine to track at all times the movements and location of miners working in or at the mine; (3) emergency oxygen-generating, self-rescue devices that provide oxygen for at least 90 minutes; (4) pre-positioned supplies of oxygen providing each miner on a shift the ability to survive for at least 48 hours; and (5) comprehensive atmospheric monitoring systems that monitor the levels of carbon monoxide, methane, and oxygen that are present in all areas of the mine and that can detect smoke in the case of a fire in a mine.⁵⁹⁸

12. Extension of special expensing rules for certain film and television productions; special expensing for live theatrical productions (sec. 169 of the Act and sec. 181 of the Code)

A qualified film or television production means any production of a motion picture (whether released theatrically or directly to video cassette or any other format) or television program if at least 75 percent of the total compensation expended on the production is for services performed in the United States by actors, directors, producers, and other relevant production personnel.⁶⁰³ The term "compensation" does not include participations and residuals (as defined in section 167(g)(7)(B)).⁶⁰⁴ Each episode of a television series is treated as a separate production, and only the first 44 episodes of a particular series qualify under the provision.⁶⁰⁵ Qualified productions do not include sexually explicit productions as referenced by section 2257 of title 18 of the U.S. Code.⁶⁰⁶

For purposes of recapture under section 1245, any deduction allowed under section 181 is treated as if it were a deduction allowable for amortization.⁶⁰⁷

The provision also expands section 181 to include any qualified live theatrical production commencing after December 31, 2015. A qualified live theatrical production is defined as a live staged production of a play (with or without music) which is derived from a written book or script and is produced or presented by a commercial entity in any venue which has an audience capacity of not more than 3,000, or a series of venues the majority of which have an audience capacity of not more than 3,000. In addition, qualified live theatrical productions include any live staged production which is produced or presented by a taxable entity no more than 10 weeks annually in any venue which has an audience capacity of not more than 6,500. In general, in the case of multiple live-staged productions, each such live-staged production is treated as a separate production. Similar to the exclusion for sexually explicit productions from the present-law definition of qualified productions, qualified live theatrical productions do not include stage performances that would be excluded by section 2257(h)(1) of title 18 of the U.S. Code, if such provision were extended to live stage performances.

The modifications for live theatrical productions apply to productions commencing after December 31, 2015. For purposes of this provision, the date on which a qualified live theatrical production commences is the date of the first public performance of such production for a paying audience.

13. Extension of deduction allowable with respect to income attributable to domestic production activities in Puerto Rico (sec. 170 of the Act and sec. 199 of the Code)

Present law generally provides a deduction from taxable income (or, in the case of an individual, adjusted gross income) that is equal to nine percent of the lesser of the taxpayer's qualified production activities income or taxable income for the taxable year. For taxpayers subject to the 35-percent corporate income tax rate, the nine-percent deduction effectively reduces the corporate income tax rate to slightly less than 32 percent on qualified production activities income.

In general, qualified production activities income is equal to domestic production gross receipts reduced by the sum of: (1) the costs of goods sold that are allocable to those receipts; and (2) other expenses, losses, or deductions which are properly allocable to those receipts.

Domestic production gross receipts generally are gross receipts of a taxpayer that are derived from: (1) any sale, exchange, or other disposition, or any lease, rental, or license, of qualifying production property⁶⁰⁸ that was manufactured, produced, grown or extracted by the taxpayer in whole or in significant part within the United States; (2) any sale, exchange, or other disposition, or any lease, rental, or license, of qualified film⁶⁰⁹ produced by the taxpayer; (3) any lease, rental, license, sale, exchange, or other disposition of electricity, natural gas, or potable water produced by the taxpayer in the United States; (4) construction of real property performed in the United States by a taxpayer in the ordinary course of a construction trade or business; or (5) engineering or architectural services performed in the United States for the construction of real property located in the United States.

The amount of the deduction for a taxable year is limited to 50 percent of the wages paid by the taxpayer, and properly allocable to domestic production gross receipts, during the calendar year that ends in such taxable year.⁶¹⁰ Wages paid to bona fide residents of Puerto Rico generally are not included in the definition of wages for purposes of computing the wage limitation amount.⁶¹¹

Rules for Puerto Rico

When used in the Code in a geographical sense, the term "United States" generally includes only the States and the District of Columbia.⁶¹² A special rule for determining domestic production gross receipts, however, provides that in the case of any taxpayer with gross receipts from sources within the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the term "United States" includes the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, but only if all of the taxpayer's Puerto Rico-sourced gross receipts are taxable under the Federal income tax for individuals or corporations.⁶¹³ In computing the 50-percent wage limitation, the taxpayer is permitted to take into account wages paid to bona fide residents of Puerto Rico for services performed in Puerto Rico.⁶¹⁴

The special rules for Puerto Rico apply only with respect to the first nine taxable years of a taxpayer beginning after December 31, 2005 and before January 1, 2015.

14. Extension and modification of empowerment zone tax incentives (sec. 171 of the Act and secs. 1391 and 1394 of the Code)

The Taxpayer Relief Act of 1997⁶¹⁷ authorized the designation of two additional Round I urban empowerment zones, and 20 additional empowerment zones ("Round II empowerment zones"). The Community Renewal Tax Relief Act of 2000 ("2000 Community Renewal Act")⁶¹⁸ authorized a total of 10 new empowerment zones ("Round III empowerment zones"), bringing the total number of authorized empowerment zones to 40.⁶¹⁹ In addition, the 2000 Community Renewal Act conformed the tax incentives that are available to businesses in the Round I, Round II, and Round III empowerment zones, and extended the empowerment zone incentives through December 31, 2009. Subsequent legislation extended the empowerment zone incentives through December 31, 2014.⁶²⁰

The tax incentives available within the designated empowerment zones include a Federal income tax credit for employers who hire qualifying employees (the "wage credit"), increased expensing of qualifying depreciable property, tax-exempt bond financing, deferral of capital gains tax on the sale of qualified assets sold and replaced, and partial exclusion of capital gains tax on certain sales of qualified small business stock.

The following is a description of the empowerment zone tax incentives.

Wage credit

A 20-percent wage credit is available to employers for the first $15,000 of qualified wages paid to each employee (i.e., a maximum credit of $3,000 with respect to each qualified employee) who (1) is a resident of the empowerment zone, and (2) performs substantially all employment services within the empowerment zone in a trade or business of the employer.⁶²¹

The wage credit rate applies to qualifying wages paid before January 1, 2015. Wages paid to a qualified employee who earns more than $15,000 are eligible for the wage credit (although only the first $15,000 of wages is eligible for the credit). The wage credit is available with respect to a qualified full-time or part-time employee (employed for at least 90 days), regardless of the number of other employees who work for the employer. In general, any taxable business carrying out activities in the empowerment zone may claim the wage credit, regardless of whether the employer meets the definition of an "enterprise zone business."⁶²²

An employer's deduction otherwise allowed for wages paid is reduced by the amount of wage credit claimed for that taxable year.⁶²³ Wages are not to be taken into account for purposes of the wage credit if taken into account in determining the employer's work opportunity tax credit under section 51.⁶²⁴ In addition, the $15,000 cap is reduced by any wages taken into account in computing the work opportunity tax credit.⁶²⁵ The wage credit may be used to offset up to 25 percent of the employer's alternative minimum tax liability.⁶²⁶

Increased section 179 expensing limitation

An enterprise zone business is allowed up to an additional $35,000 of section 179 expensing for qualified zone property placed in service before January 1, 2015.⁶²⁷ For taxable years beginning in 2014, the total amount that may be expensed is $535,000 (assuming at least $35,000 of qualified zone property is placed in service during the taxable year).⁶²⁸ The section 179 expensing allowed to a taxpayer is phased out by the amount by which the cost of qualifying property placed in service during the taxable year exceeds a specified dollar amount.⁶³⁰

The term "qualified zone property" is defined as depreciable tangible property (including buildings) provided that (i) the property is acquired by the taxpayer (from an unrelated party) after the designation took effect, (ii) the original use of the property in an empowerment zone commences with the taxpayer, and (iii) substantially all of the use of the property is in an empowerment zone in the active conduct of a trade or business by the taxpayer.⁶³¹ Special rules are provided in the case of property that is substantially renovated by the taxpayer.

An enterprise zone business means any qualified business entity and any qualified proprietorship. A qualified business entity means any corporation or partnership if for such year: (1) every trade or business of such entity is the active conduct of a qualified business within an empowerment zone; (2) at least 50 percent of the total gross income of such entity is derived from the active conduct of such business; (3) a substantial portion of the use of the tangible property of such entity (whether owned or leased) is within an empowerment zone; (4) a substantial portion of the intangible property of such entity is used in the active conduct of any such business; (5) a substantial portion of the services performed for such entity by its employees are performed in an empowerment zone; (6) at least 35 percent of its employees are residents of an empowerment zone; (7) less than five percent of the average of the aggregate unadjusted bases of the property of such entity is attributable to collectibles other than collectibles that are held primarily for sale to customers in the ordinary course of such business; and (8) less than five percent of the average of the aggregate unadjusted bases of the property of such entity is attributable to nonqualified financial property.⁶³²

A qualified proprietorship is any qualified business carried on by an individual as a proprietorship if for such year: (1) at least 50 percent of the total gross income of such individual from such business is derived from the active conduct of such business in an empowerment zone; (2) a substantial portion of the use of the tangible property of such individual in such business (whether owned or leased) is within an empowerment zone; (3) a substantial portion of the intangible property of such business is used in the active conduct of such business; (4) a substantial portion of the services performed for such individual in such business by employees of such business are performed in an empowerment zone; (5) at least 35 percent of such employees are residents of an empowerment zone; (6) less than five percent of the average of the aggregate unadjusted bases of the property of such individual which is used in such business is attributable to collectibles other than collectibles that are held primarily for sale to customers in the ordinary course of such business; and (7) less than five percent of the average of the aggregate unadjusted bases of the property of such individual which is used in such business is attributable to nonqualified financial property.⁶³³

A qualified business is defined as any trade or business other than a trade or business that consists predominantly of the development or holding of intangibles for sale or license or any business prohibited in connection with the employment credit.⁶³⁴ In addition, the leasing of real property that is located within the empowerment zone is treated as a qualified business only if (1) the leased property is not residential property, and (2) at least 50 percent of the gross rental income from the real property is from enterprise zone businesses. The rental of tangible personal property is not a qualified business unless at least 50 percent of the rental of such property is by enterprise zone businesses or by residents of an empowerment zone.

Expanded tax-exempt financing for certain zone facilities

States or local governments can issue enterprise zone facility bonds to raise funds to provide an enterprise zone business with qualified zone property.⁶³⁵ These bonds can be used in areas designated enterprise communities as well as areas designated empowerment zones. To qualify, 95 percent (or more) of the net proceeds from the bond issue must be used to finance: (1) qualified zone property whose principal user is an enterprise zone business, and (2) certain land functionally related and subordinate to such property.

The term enterprise zone business is the same as that used for purposes of the increased section 179 deduction limitation (discussed above) with certain modifications for start-up businesses. First, a business will be treated as an enterprise zone business during a start-up period if (1) at the beginning of the period, it is reasonable to expect the business to be an enterprise zone business by the end of the start-up period, and (2) the business makes bona fide efforts to be an enterprise zone business. The start-up period is the period that ends with the start of the first tax year beginning more than two years after the later of (1) the issue date of the bond issue financing the qualified zone property, and (2) the date this property is first placed in service (or, if earlier, the date that is three years after the issue date).⁶³⁶

Second, a business that qualifies as an enterprise zone business at the end of the start-up period must continue to qualify during a testing period that ends three tax years after the start-up period ends. After the three-year testing period, a business will continue to be treated as an enterprise zone business as long as 35 percent of its employees are residents of an empowerment zone or enterprise community.

The face amount of the bonds may not exceed $60 million for an empowerment zone in a rural area, $130 million for an empowerment zone in an urban area with zone population of less than 100,000, and $230 million for an empowerment zone in an urban area with zone population of at least 100,000.

Elective rollover of capital gain from the sale or exchange of any qualified empowerment zone asset

Taxpayers can elect to defer recognition of gain on the sale of a qualified empowerment zone asset held for more than one year and replaced within 60 days by another qualified empowerment zone asset in the same zone.⁶³⁷ A qualified empowerment zone asset generally means stock or a partnership interest acquired at original issue for cash in an enterprise zone business, or tangible property originally used in an enterprise zone business by the taxpayer. The deferral is accomplished by reducing the basis of the replacement asset by the amount of the gain recognized on the sale of the asset.

Partial exclusion of capital gains on certain small business stock

Generally, individuals may exclude a percentage of gain from the sale of certain small business stock acquired at original issue and held at least five years.⁶³⁸ For stock acquired prior to February 18, 2009, or after December 31, 2014, the percentage is generally 50 percent, except that for empowerment zone stock the percentage is 60 percent for gain attributable to periods before January 1, 2019. For stock acquired after February 17, 2009, and before January 1, 2015, a higher percentage (either 75-percent or 100-percent) applies to all small business stock with no additional percentage for empowerment zone stock.⁶³⁹

Other tax incentives

Other incentives not specific to empowerment zones but beneficial to these areas include the work opportunity tax credit for employers based on the first year of employment of certain targeted groups, including empowerment zone residents (up to $2,400 per employee), and qualified zone academy bonds for certain public schools located in an empowerment zone or expected (as of the date of bond issuance) to have at least 35 percent of its students receiving free or reduced lunches.

The provision extends for two years, through December 31, 2016, the period for which the designation of an empowerment zone is in effect, thus extending for two years the empowerment zone tax incentives, including the wage credit, increased section 179 expensing for qualifying property, tax-exempt bond financing, and deferral of capital gains tax on the sale of qualified assets replaced with other qualified assets. In the case of a designation of an empowerment zone the nomination for which included a termination date which is December 31, 2016, termination shall not apply with respect to such designation if the entity which made such nomination amends the nomination to provide for a new termination date in such manner as the Secretary may provide.

Modification of enterprise zone facility bond employment requirement

The provision also amends the requirements for tax-exempt enterprise zone facility bonds to treat an employee as a resident of an empowerment zone for purposes of the 35 percent in-zone employment requirement if they are a resident of an empowerment zone, an enterprise community, or a qualified low-income community within an applicable nominating jurisdiction. The applicable nominating jurisdiction means, with respect to any empowerment zone or enterprise community, any local government that nominated such community for designation under section 1391. The definition of a qualified low-income community is similar to the definition of a low income community provided in section 45D(e) (concerning eligibility for the new markets tax credit). A "qualified low-income community" is a population census tract with either (1) a poverty rate of at least 20 percent, or (2) median family income which does not exceed 80 percent of the greater of metropolitan area median family income or statewide median family income (for a non-metropolitan census tract, does not exceed 80 percent of statewide median family income). In the case of a population census tract located within a high migration rural county, low-income is defined by reference to 85 percent (as opposed to 80 percent) of statewide median family income. For this purpose, a high migration rural county is any county that, during the 20-year period ending with the year in which the most recent census was conducted, has a net out-migration of inhabitants from the county of at least 10 percent of the population of the county at the beginning of such period.

The Secretary is authorized to designate "targeted populations" as qualified low-income communities. For this purpose, a "targeted population" is defined by reference to section 103(20) of the Riegle Community Development and Regulatory Improvement Act of 1994 (the "Act") to mean individuals, or an identifiable group of individuals, including an Indian tribe, who are low-income persons or otherwise lack adequate access to loans or equity investments. Section 103(17) of the Act provides that "low-income" means (1) for a targeted population within a metropolitan area, less than 80 percent of the area median family income; and (2) for a targeted population within a non-metropolitan area, less than the greater of (a) 80 percent of the area median family income, or (b) 80 percent of the statewide non-metropolitan area median family income.

15. Extension of temporary increase in limit on cover over of rum excise taxes to Puerto Rico and the Virgin Islands (sec. 172 of the Act and sec. 7652(f) of the Code)

The Code provides for cover over (payment) to Puerto Rico and the Virgin Islands of the excise tax imposed on rum imported (or brought) into the United States, without regard to the country of origin.⁶⁴³ The amount of the cover over is limited under Code section 7652(f) to $10.50 per proof gallon ($13.25 per proof gallon before January 1, 2015).

Tax amounts attributable to shipments to the United States of rum produced in Puerto Rico are covered over to Puerto Rico. Tax amounts attributable to shipments to the United States of rum produced in the Virgin Islands are covered over to the Virgin Islands. Tax amounts attributable to shipments to the United States of rum produced in neither Puerto Rico nor the Virgin Islands are divided and covered over to the two possessions under a formula.⁶⁴⁴ Amounts covered over to Puerto Rico and the Virgin Islands are deposited into the treasuries of the two possessions for use as those possessions determine.⁶⁴⁵ All of the amounts covered over are subject to the limitation.

16. Extension of American Samoa economic development credit (sec. 173 of the Act and sec. 119 of Pub. L. No. 109-432)

A corporation was an existing credit claimant with respect to a American Samoa if (1) the corporation was engaged in the active conduct of a trade or business within American Samoa on October 13, 1995, and (2) the corporation elected the benefits of the possession tax credit ⁶⁴⁶ in an election in effect for its taxable year that included October 13, 1995. A corporation that added a substantial new line of business (other than in a qualifying acquisition of all the assets of a trade or business of an existing credit claimant) ceased to be an existing credit claimant as of the close of the taxable year ending before the date on which that new line of business was added.

A corporation will qualify as an existing credit claimant if it acquired all the assets of a trade or business of a corporation that (1) actively conducted that trade or business in a possession on October 13, 1995, and (2) had elected the benefits of the possession tax credit in an election in effect for the taxable year that included October 13, 1995.⁶⁴⁷

The amount of the credit allowed to a qualifying domestic corporation under the provision is equal to the sum of the amounts used in computing the corporation's economic activity-based limitation with respect to American Samoa, except that no credit is allowed for the amount of any American Samoa income taxes. Thus, for any qualifying corporation the amount of the credit equals the sum of (1) 60 percent of the corporation's qualified American Samoa wages and allocable employee fringe benefit expenses and (2) 15 percent of the corporation's depreciation allowances with respect to short-life qualified American Samoa tangible property, plus 40 percent of the corporation's depreciation allowances with respect to medium-life qualified American Samoa tangible property, plus 65 percent of the corporation's depreciation allowances with respect to long-life qualified American Samoa tangible property.

The section 936(c) rule denying a credit or deduction for any possessions or foreign tax paid with respect to taxable income taken into account in computing the credit under section 936 does not apply with respect to the credit allowed by the provision.

For taxable years beginning after December 31, 2011 the credit rules are modified in two ways. First, domestic corporations with operations in American Samoa are allowed the credit even if those corporations are not existing credit claimants. Second, the credit is available to a domestic corporation (either an existing credit claimant or a new credit claimant) only if, in addition to satisfying all the present law requirements for claiming the credit, the corporation also has qualified production activities income (as defined in section 199(c) by substituting "American Samoa" for "the United States" in each place that latter term appears).

In the case of a corporation that is an existing credit claimant with respect to American Samoa and that elected the application of section 936 for its last taxable year beginning before January 1, 2006, the credit applies to the first nine taxable years of the corporation which begin after December 31, 2005, and before January 1, 2015. For any other corporation, the credit applies to the first three taxable years of that corporation which begin after December 31, 2011 and before January 1, 2015.

17. Suspension of medical device excise tax (sec. 174 of the Act and sec. 4191 of the Code)

The excise tax does not apply to eyeglasses, contact lenses, hearing aids, or any other medical device determined by the Secretary to be of a type that is generally purchased by the general public at retail for individual use ("retail exemption"). Regulations provide guidance on the types of devices that are exempt under the retail exemption. A device is exempt under these provisions if: (1) it is regularly available for purchase and use by individual consumers who are not medical professionals; and (2) the design of the device demonstrates that it is not primarily intended for use in a medical institution or office or by a medical professional.⁶⁵¹ Additionally, the regulations provide certain safe harbors for devices eligible for the retail exemption.⁶⁵²

The medical device excise tax is generally subject to the rules applicable to other manufacturers excise taxes. These rules include certain general manufacturers excise tax exemptions including the exemption for sales for use by the purchaser for further manufacture (or for resale to a second purchaser in further manufacture) or for export (or for resale to a second purchaser for export).⁶⁵³ If a medical device is sold free of tax for resale to a second purchaser for further manufacture or for export, the exemption does not apply unless, within the six-month period beginning on the date of sale by the manufacturer, the manufacturer receives proof that the medical device has been exported or resold for use in further manufacturing.⁶⁵⁴ In general, the exemption does not apply unless the manufacturer, the first purchaser, and the second purchaser are registered with the Secretary of the Treasury. Foreign purchasers of articles sold or resold for export are exempt from the registration requirement.

The lease of a medical device is generally considered to be a sale of such device.⁶⁵⁵ Special rules apply for the imposition of tax to each lease payment. The use of a medical device subject to tax by manufacturers, producers, or importers of such device, is treated as a sale for the purpose of imposition of excise taxes.⁶⁵⁶

There are also rules for determining the price of a medical device on which the excise tax is imposed.⁶⁵⁷ These rules provide for (1) the inclusion of containers, packaging, and certain transportation charges in the price, (2) determining a constructive sales price if a medical device is sold for less than the fair market price, and (3) determining the tax due in the case of partial payments or installment sales.

Building envelope components are: (1) insulation materials or systems which are specifically and primarily designed to reduce the heat loss or gain for a dwelling and which meet the prescriptive criteria for such material or system established by the 2009 International Energy Conservation Code, as such Code (including supplements) is in effect on the date of the enactment of the American Recovery and Reinvestment Tax Act of 2009; ⁶⁶⁰ (2) exterior windows (including skylights) and doors; and (3) metal or asphalt roofs with appropriate pigmented coatings or cooling granules that are specifically and primarily designed to reduce the heat gain for a dwelling.

Additionally, present law provides credits for the purchase of specific energy efficient property originally placed in service by the taxpayer during the taxable year. The allowable credit for the purchase of certain property is (1) $50 for each advanced main air circulating fan, (2) $150 for each qualified natural gas, propane, or oil furnace or hot water boiler, and (3) $300 for each item of energy efficient building property.

An advanced main air circulating fan is a fan used in a natural gas, propane, or oil furnace and which has an annual electricity use of no more than two percent of the total annual energy use of the furnace (as determined in the standard Department of Energy test procedures).

A qualified natural gas, propane, or oil furnace or hot water boiler is a natural gas, propane, or oil furnace or hot water boiler with an annual fuel utilization efficiency rate of at least 95.

Energy-efficient building property is: (1) an electric heat pump water heater which yields an energy factor of at least 2.0 in the standard Department of Energy test procedure, (2) an electric heat pump which achieves the highest efficiency tier established by the Consortium for Energy Efficiency, as in effect on January 1, 2009,⁶⁶¹ (3) a central air conditioner which achieves the highest efficiency tier established by the Consortium for Energy Efficiency as in effect on January 1, 2009,⁶⁶² (4) a natural gas, propane, or oil water heater which has an energy factor of at least 0.82 or thermal efficiency of at least 90 percent, and (5) biomass fuel property.

Biomass fuel property is a stove that burns biomass fuel to heat a dwelling unit located in the United States and used as a principal residence by the taxpayer, or to heat water for such dwelling unit, and that has a thermal efficiency rating of at least 75 percent. Biomass fuel is any plant-derived fuel available on a renewable or recurring basis, including agricultural crops and trees, wood and wood waste and residues (including wood pellets), plants (including aquatic plants), grasses, residues, and fibers.

The credit is available for property placed in service prior to January 1, 2015. The maximum credit for a taxpayer for all taxable years is $500, and no more than $200 of such credit may be attributable to expenditures on windows.

The taxpayer's basis in the property is reduced by the amount of the credit. Special proration rules apply in the case of jointly owned property, condominiums, and tenant-stockholders in cooperative housing corporations. If less than 80 percent of the property is used for nonbusiness purposes, only that portion of expenditures that is used for nonbusiness purposes is taken into account.

For purposes of determining the amount of expenditures made by any individual with respect to any dwelling unit, expenditures which are made from subsidized energy financing are not taken into account. The term "subsidized energy financing" means financing provided under a Federal, State, or local program a principal purpose of which is to provide subsidized financing for projects designed to conserve or produce energy.

The modification to the credit applies to property placed in service after December 31, 2015.

19. Extension of credit for alternative fuel vehicle refueling property (sec. 182 of the Act and section 30C of the Code)

Qualified refueling property is property (not including a building or its structural components) for the storage or dispensing of a clean-burning fuel or electricity into the fuel tank or battery of a motor vehicle propelled by such fuel or electricity, but only if the storage or dispensing of the fuel or electricity is at the point of delivery into the fuel tank or battery of the motor vehicle. The original use of such property must begin with the taxpayer.

Clean-burning fuels are any fuel at least 85 percent of the volume of which consists of ethanol, natural gas, compressed natural gas, liquefied natural gas, liquefied petroleum gas, or hydrogen. In addition, any mixture of biodiesel and diesel fuel, determined without regard to any use of kerosene and containing at least 20 percent biodiesel, qualifies as a clean fuel.

Credits for qualified refueling property used in a trade or business are part of the general business credit and may be carried back for one year and forward for 20 years. Credits for residential qualified refueling property cannot exceed for any taxable year the difference between the taxpayer's regular tax (reduced by certain other credits) and the taxpayer's tentative minimum tax. Generally, in the case of qualified refueling property sold to a tax-exempt entity, the taxpayer selling the property may claim the credit.

A taxpayer's basis in qualified refueling property is reduced by the amount of the credit. In addition, no credit is available for property used outside the United States or for which an election to expense has been made under section 179.

The credit is available for property placed in service before January 1, 2015.

20. Extension of credit for electric motorcycles (sec. 183 of the Act and sec. 30D of the Code)

21. Extension of second generation biofuel producer credit (sec. 184 of the Act and sec. 40(b)(6) of the Code)

"Qualified second generation biofuel production" is any second generation biofuel which is produced by the taxpayer and which, during the taxable year, is: (1) sold by the taxpayer to another person (a) for use by such other person in the production of a qualified second generation biofuel mixture in such person's trade or business (other than casual off-farm production), (b) for use by such other person as a fuel in a trade or business, or (c) who sells such second generation biofuel at retail to another person and places such cellulosic biofuel in the fuel tank of such other person; or (2) used by the producer for any purpose described in (1)(a), (b), or (c).⁶⁶⁵ Special rules apply for fuel derived from algae.

"Second generation biofuel" means any liquid fuel that (1) is produced in the United States and used as fuel in the United States, (2) is derived by or from qualified feedstocks and (3) meets the registration requirements for fuels and fuel additives established by the Environmental Protection Agency ("EPA") under section 211 of the Clean Air Act. "Qualified feedstock" means any lignocellulosic or hemicellulosic matter that is available on a renewable or recurring basis, and any cultivated algae, cyanobacteria or lemna. Second generation biofuel does not include fuels that (1) are more than four percent (determined by weight) water and sediment in any combination, (2) have an ash content of more than one percent (determined by weight), or (3) have an acid number greater than 25 ("unprocessed or excluded fuels"). It also does not include any alcohol with a proof of less than 150.

The second generation biofuel producer credit cannot be claimed unless the taxpayer is registered by the Internal Revenue Service ("IRS") as a producer of second generation biofuel. Second generation biofuel eligible for the section 40 credit is precluded from qualifying as biodiesel, renewable diesel, or alternative fuel for purposes of the applicable income tax credit, excise tax credit, or payment provisions relating to those fuels.

Because it is a credit under section 40(a), the second generation biofuel producer credit is part of the general business credits in section 38. However, the credit can only be carried forward three taxable years after the termination of the credit. The credit is also allowable against the alternative minimum tax. Under section 87, the credit is included in gross income.

22. Extension of biodiesel and renewable diesel incentives (sec. 185 of the Act and sec. 40A of the Code)

Present law provides an income tax credit for biodiesel fuels (the "biodiesel fuels credit"). The biodiesel fuels credit is the sum of three credits: (1) the biodiesel mixture credit, (2) the biodiesel credit, and (3) the small agri-biodiesel producer credit. The biodiesel fuels credit is treated as a general business credit. The amount of the biodiesel fuels credit is includible in gross income. The biodiesel fuels credit is coordinated to take into account benefits from the biodiesel excise tax credit and payment provisions discussed below. The credit does not apply to fuel sold or used after December 31, 2014.

Biodiesel is monoalkyl esters of long chain fatty acids derived from plant or animal matter that meet (1) the registration requirements established by the EPA under section 211 of the Clean Air Act (42 U.S.C. sec. 7545) and (2) the requirements of the American Society of Testing and Materials ("ASTM") D6751. Agri-biodiesel is biodiesel derived solely from virgin oils including oils from corn, soybeans, sunflower seeds, cottonseeds, canola, crambe, rapeseeds, safflowers, flaxseeds, rice bran, mustard seeds, camelina, or animal fats.

Biodiesel may be taken into account for purposes of the credit only if the taxpayer obtains a certification (in such form and manner as prescribed by the Secretary) from the producer or importer of the biodiesel that identifies the product produced and the percentage of biodiesel and agri-biodiesel in the product.

Biodiesel mixture credit

The biodiesel mixture credit is $1.00 for each gallon of biodiesel (including agri-biodiesel) used by the taxpayer in the production of a qualified biodiesel mixture. A qualified biodiesel mixture is a mixture of biodiesel and diesel fuel that is (1) sold by the taxpayer producing such mixture to any person for use as a fuel, or (2) used as a fuel by the taxpayer producing such mixture. The sale or use must be in the trade or business of the taxpayer and is to be taken into account for the taxable year in which such sale or use occurs. No credit is allowed with respect to any casual off-farm production of a qualified biodiesel mixture.

Per IRS guidance a mixture need only contain 1/10th of one percent of diesel fuel to be a qualified mixture. Thus, a qualified biodiesel mixture can contain 99.9 percent biodiesel and 0.1 percent diesel fuel.

Biodiesel credit (B-100)

The biodiesel credit is $1.00 for each gallon of biodiesel that is not in a mixture with diesel fuel (100 percent biodiesel or B-100) and which during the taxable year is (1) used by the taxpayer as a fuel in a trade or business or (2) sold by the taxpayer at retail to a person and placed in the fuel tank of such person's vehicle.

Small agri-biodiesel producer credit

The Code provides a small agri-biodiesel producer income tax credit, in addition to the biodiesel and biodiesel mixture credits. The credit is 10 cents per gallon for up to 15 million gallons of agri-biodiesel produced by small producers, defined generally as persons whose agri-biodiesel production capacity does not exceed 60 million gallons per year. The agri-biodiesel must (1) be sold by such producer to another person (a) for use by such other person in the production of a qualified biodiesel mixture in such person's trade or business (other than casual off-farm production), (b) for use by such other person as a fuel in a trade or business, or, (c) who sells such agri-biodiesel at retail to another person and places such agri-biodiesel in the fuel tank of such other person; or (2) used by the producer for any purpose described in (a), (b), or (c).

Biodiesel mixture excise tax credit

The Code also provides an excise tax credit for biodiesel mixtures. The credit is $1.00 for each gallon of biodiesel used by the taxpayer in producing a biodiesel mixture for sale or use in a trade or business of the taxpayer. A biodiesel mixture is a mixture of biodiesel and diesel fuel that (1) is sold by the taxpayer producing such mixture to any person for use as a fuel or (2) is used as a fuel by the taxpayer producing such mixture. No credit is allowed unless the taxpayer obtains a certification (in such form and manner as prescribed by the Secretary) from the producer of the biodiesel that identifies the product produced and the percentage of biodiesel and agri-biodiesel in the product.

The credit is not available for any sale or use for any period after December 31, 2014. This excise tax credit is coordinated with the income tax credit for biodiesel such that credit for the same biodiesel cannot be claimed for both income and excise tax purposes.

Payments with respect to biodiesel fuel mixtures

If any person produces a biodiesel fuel mixture in such person's trade or business, the Secretary is to pay such person an amount equal to the biodiesel mixture credit. The biodiesel fuel mixture credit must first be taken against tax liability for taxable fuels. To the extent the biodiesel fuel mixture credit exceeds such tax liability, the excess may be received as a payment. Thus, if the person has no section 4081 liability, the credit is refundable. The Secretary is not required to make payments with respect to biodiesel fuel mixtures sold or used after December 31, 2014.

Renewable diesel

Renewable diesel is liquid fuel that (1) is derived from biomass (as defined in section 45K(c)(3)), (2) meets the registration requirements for fuels and fuel additives established by the EPA under section 211 of the Clean Air Act, and (3) meets the requirements of the ASTM D975 or D396, or equivalent standard established by the Secretary. ASTM D975 provides standards for diesel fuel suitable for use in diesel engines. ASTM D396 provides standards for fuel oil intended for use in fuel-oil burning equipment, such as furnaces. Renewable diesel also includes fuel derived from biomass that meets the requirements of a Department of Defense specification for military jet fuel or an ASTM specification for aviation turbine fuel.

For purposes of the Code, renewable diesel is generally treated the same as biodiesel. In the case of renewable diesel that is aviation fuel, kerosene is treated as though it were diesel fuel for purposes of a qualified renewable diesel mixture. Like biodiesel, the incentive may be taken as an income tax credit, an excise tax credit, or as a payment from the Secretary. The incentive for renewable diesel is $1.00 per gallon. There is no small producer credit for renewable diesel. The incentives for renewable diesel expired after December 31, 2014.

23. Extension of credit for the production of Indian coal facilities (sec. 186 of the Act and sec. 45 of the Code)

The credit is a component of the general business credit,⁶⁶⁶ allowing excess credits to be carried back one year and forward up to 20 years. The credit is not permitted against the alternative minimum tax.

The removal of the placed-in-service limitation and the modification to the third party sale requirement apply to coal produced and sold after December 31, 2015.

The provision exempting the credit from the alternative minimum tax applies to credits determined for taxable years beginning after December 31, 2015.

24. Extension of credits with respect to facilities producing energy from certain renewable resources (sec. 187 of the Act and secs. 45 and 48 of the Code)

An income tax credit is allowed for the production of electricity from qualified energy resources at qualified facilities (the "renewable electricity production credit").⁶⁶⁷ Qualified energy resources comprise wind, closed-loop biomass, open-loop biomass, geothermal energy, municipal solid waste, qualified hydropower production, and marine and hydrokinetic renewable energy. Qualified facilities are, generally, facilities that generate electricity using qualified energy resources. To be eligible for the credit, electricity produced from qualified energy resources at qualified facilities must be sold by the taxpayer to an unrelated person.

                SUMMARY OF CREDIT FOR ELECTRICITY PRODUCED FROM

A taxpayer may make an irrevocable election to have certain property which is part of a qualified renewable electricity production facility be treated as energy property eligible for a 30 percent investment credit under section 48. For this purpose, qualified facilities are facilities otherwise eligible for the renewable electricity production credit with respect to which no credit under section 45 has been allowed. A taxpayer electing to treat a facility as energy property may not claim the renewable electricity production credit. The eligible basis for the investment credit for taxpayers making this election is the basis of the depreciable (or amortizable) property that is part of a facility capable of generating electricity eligible for the renewable electricity production credit.

25. Extension of credit for energy-efficient new homes (sec. 188 of the Act and sec. 45L of the Code)

Manufactured homes that conform to Federal manufactured home construction and safety standards are eligible for the credit provided all the criteria for the credit are met. The eligible contractor is the person who constructed the home, or in the case of a manufactured home, the producer of such home.

The credit equals $1,000 in the case of a new home that meets the 30-percent standard and $2,000 in the case of a new home that meets the 50-percent standard. Only manufactured homes are eligible for the $1,000 credit.

In lieu of meeting the standards of chapter 4 of the 2006 International Energy Conservation Code, manufactured homes certified by a method prescribed by the Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency under the Energy Star Labeled Homes program are eligible for the $1,000 credit provided criteria (1) and (2), above, are met.

The credit applies to homes that are purchased prior to January 1, 2015. The credit is part of the general business credit.

26. Extension of special allowance for second generation biofuel plant property (sec. 189 of the Act and sec. 168(l) of the Code)

Qualified second generation biofuel plant property means depreciable property used in the U.S. solely to produce any liquid fuel that (1) is derived from qualified feedstocks, and (2) meets the registration requirements for fuels and fuel additives established by the Environmental Protection Agency ("EPA") under section 211 of the Clean Air Act.⁶⁷⁰ Qualified feedstocks means any lignocellulosic or hemicellulosic matter that is available on a renewable or recurring basis ⁶⁷¹ and any cultivated algae, cyanobacteria, or lemna.⁶⁷² Second generation biofuel does not include any alcohol with a proof of less than 150 or certain unprocessed fuel.⁶⁷³ Unprocessed fuels are fuels that (1) are more than four percent (determined by weight) water and sediment in any combination, (2) have an ash content of more than one percent (determined by weight), or (3) have an acid number greater than 25.⁶⁷⁴

The additional first-year depreciation deduction is allowed for both regular tax and alternative minimum tax purposes for the taxable year in which the property is placed in service.⁶⁷⁵ The additional first-year depreciation deduction is subject to the general rules regarding whether an item is subject to capitalization under section 263A. The basis of the property and the depreciation allowances in the year of purchase and later years are appropriately adjusted to reflect the additional first-year depreciation deduction.⁶⁷⁶ In addition, there is no adjustment to the allowable amount of depreciation for purposes of computing a taxpayer's alternative minimum taxable income with respect to property to which the provision applies.⁶⁷⁷ A taxpayer is allowed to elect out of the additional first-year depreciation for any class of property for any taxable year.⁶⁷⁸

In order for property to qualify for the additional first-year depreciation deduction, it must meet the following requirements: (1) the original use of the property must commence with the taxpayer; and (2) the property must be (i) acquired by purchase (as defined under section 179(d)) by the taxpayer, and (ii) placed in service before January 1, 2015.⁶⁷⁹ Property that is manufactured, constructed, or produced by the taxpayer for use by the taxpayer qualifies if the taxpayer begins the manufacture, construction, or production of the property before January 1, 2015 (and all other requirements are met).⁶⁸⁰ Property that is manufactured, constructed, or produced for the taxpayer by another person under a contract that is entered into prior to the manufacture, construction, or production of the property is considered to be manufactured, constructed, or produced by the taxpayer.

Property any portion of which is financed with the proceeds of a tax-exempt obligation under section 103 is not eligible for the additional first-year depreciation deduction.⁶⁸¹ Recapture rules apply if the property ceases to be qualified second generation biofuel plant property.⁶⁸²

Property with respect to which the taxpayer has elected 50 percent expensing under section 179C is not eligible for the additional first-year depreciation deduction.⁶⁸³

27. Extension of energy efficient commercial buildings deduction (sec. 190 of the Act and sec. 179D of the Code)

Code section 179D provides an election under which a taxpayer may take an immediate deduction equal to energy-efficient commercial building property expenditures made by the taxpayer. Energy-efficient commercial building property is defined as property (1) which is installed on or in any building located in the United States that is within the scope of Standard 90.1-2001 of the American Society of Heating, Refrigerating, and Air Conditioning Engineers and the Illuminating Engineering Society of North America ("ASHRAE/IESNA"), (2) which is installed as part of (i) the interior lighting systems, (ii) the heating, cooling, ventilation, and hot water systems, or (iii) the building envelope, and (3) which is certified as being installed as part of a plan designed to reduce the total annual energy and power costs with respect to the interior lighting systems, heating, cooling, ventilation, and hot water systems of the building by 50 percent or more in comparison to a reference building which meets the minimum requirements of Standard 90.1-2001 (as in effect on April 2, 2003). The deduction is limited to an amount equal to $1.80 per square foot of the property for which such expenditures are made. The deduction is allowed in the year in which the property is placed in service.

Certain certification requirements must be met in order to qualify for the deduction. The Secretary, in consultation with the Secretary of Energy, will promulgate regulations that describe methods of calculating and verifying energy and power costs using qualified computer software based on the provisions of the 2005 California Nonresidential Alternative Calculation Method Approval Manual or, in the case of residential property, the 2005 California Residential Alternative Calculation Method Approval Manual.

The Secretary is granted authority to prescribe procedures for the inspection and testing for compliance of buildings that are comparable, given the difference between commercial and residential buildings, to the requirements in the Mortgage Industry National Accreditation Procedures for Home Energy Rating Systems.⁶⁸⁴ Individuals qualified to determine compliance shall only be those recognized by one or more organizations certified by the Secretary for such purposes.

For energy-efficient commercial building property expenditures made by a public entity, such as public schools, the deduction may be allocated to the person primarily responsible for designing the property in lieu of the public entity.

If a deduction is allowed under this section, the basis of the property is reduced by the amount of the deduction.

The deduction applies to property placed in service prior to January 1, 2015.

Partial allowance of deduction

System-specific deductions

In the case of a building that does not meet the overall building requirement of 50-percent energy savings, a partial deduction is allowed with respect to each separate building system that comprises energy efficient property and which is certified by a qualified professional as meeting or exceeding the applicable system-specific savings targets established by the Secretary. The applicable system-specific savings targets to be established by the Secretary are those that would result in a total annual energy savings with respect to the whole building of 50 percent, if each of the separate systems met the system specific target. The separate building systems are (1) the interior lighting system, (2) the heating, cooling, ventilation and hot water systems, and (3) the building envelope. The maximum allowable deduction is $0.60 per square foot for each separate system.

Interim rules for lighting systems

In general, in the case of system-specific partial deductions, no deduction is allowed until the Secretary establishes system-specific targets.⁶⁸⁵ However, in the case of lighting system retrofits, until such time as the Secretary issues final regulations, the system-specific energy savings target for the lighting system is deemed to be met by a reduction in lighting power density of 40 percent (50 percent in the case of a warehouse) of the minimum requirements in Table 9.3.1.1 or Table 9.3.1.2 of ASHRAE/IESNA Standard 90.1-2001. Also, in the case of a lighting system that reduces lighting power density by 25 percent, a partial deduction of 30 cents per square foot is allowed. A pro-rated partial deduction is allowed in the case of a lighting system that reduces lighting power density between 25 percent and 40 percent. Certain lighting level and lighting control requirements must also be met in order to qualify for the partial lighting deductions under the interim rule.

28. Extension of special rule for sales or dispositions to implement FERC or State electric restructuring policy for qualified electric utilities (sec. 191 of the Act and sec. 451(i) of the Code)

One such special tax provision permits taxpayers to elect to recognize gain from qualifying electric transmission transactions ratably over an eight-year period beginning in the year of sale if the amount realized from such sale is used to purchase exempt utility property within the applicable period⁶⁸⁹ (the "reinvestment property").⁶⁹⁰ If the amount realized exceeds the amount used to purchase reinvestment property, any realized gain is recognized to the extent of such excess in the year of the qualifying electric transmission transaction.

A qualifying electric transmission transaction is the sale or other disposition of property used by a qualified electric utility to an independent transmission company prior to January 1, 2015.⁶⁹¹ A qualified electric utility is defined as an electric utility, which as of the date of the qualifying electric transmission transaction, is vertically integrated in that it is both (1) a transmitting utility (as defined in the Federal Power Act ⁶⁹²) with respect to the transmission facilities to which the election applies, and (2) an electric utility (as defined in the Federal Power Act ⁶⁹³).⁶⁹⁴

In general, an independent transmission company is defined as: (1) an independent transmission provider ⁶⁹⁵ approved by the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission ("FERC"); (2) a person (i) who the FERC determines under section 203 of the Federal Power Act ⁶⁹⁶ (or by declaratory order) is not a "market participant" and (ii) whose transmission facilities are placed under the operational control of a FERC-approved independent transmission provider no later than four years after the close of the taxable year in which the transaction occurs; or (3) in the case of facilities subject to the jurisdiction of the Public Utility Commission of Texas, (i) a person which is approved by that Commission as consistent with Texas State law regarding an independent transmission organization, or (ii) a political subdivision, or affiliate thereof, whose transmission facilities are under the operational control of an organization described in (i).⁶⁹⁷

Exempt utility property is defined as: (1) property used in the trade or business of (i) generating, transmitting, distributing, or selling electricity or (ii) producing, transmitting, distributing, or selling natural gas; or (2) stock in a controlled corporation whose principal trade or business consists of the activities described in (1).⁶⁹⁸ Exempt utility property does not include any property that is located outside of the United States.⁶⁹⁹

If a taxpayer is a member of an affiliated group of corporations filing a consolidated return, the reinvestment property may be purchased by any member of the affiliated group (in lieu of the taxpayer).⁷⁰⁰

29. Extension of excise tax credits and payment provisions relating to alternative fuel (sec. 192 of the Act and secs. 6426 and 6427 of the Code)

The Code provides two per-gallon excise tax credits with respect to alternative fuel: the alternative fuel credit, and the alternative fuel mixture credit. For this purpose, the term alternative fuel means liquefied petroleum gas, P Series fuels (as defined by the Secretary of Energy under 42 U.S.C. sec. 13211(2)), compressed or liquefied natural gas, liquefied hydrogen, liquid fuel derived from coal through the Fischer-Tropsch process (coal-to-liquids), compressed or liquefied gas derived from biomass, or liquid fuel derived from biomass. Such term does not include ethanol, methanol, or biodiesel.

For coal-to-liquids produced after December 30, 2009, the fuel must be certified as having been derived from coal produced at a gasification facility that separates and sequesters 75 percent of such facility's total carbon dioxide emissions.

The alternative fuel credit is allowed against section 4041 liability, and the alternative fuel mixture credit is allowed against section 4081 liability. Neither credit is allowed unless the taxpayer is registered with the Secretary. The alternative fuel credit is 50 cents per gallon of alternative fuel or gasoline gallon equivalents ⁷⁰¹ of nonliquid alternative fuel sold by the taxpayer for use as a motor fuel in a motor vehicle or motorboat, sold for use in aviation or so used by the taxpayer.

The alternative fuel mixture credit is 50 cents per gallon of alternative fuel used in producing an alternative fuel mixture for sale or use in a trade or business of the taxpayer. An alternative fuel mixture is a mixture of alternative fuel and taxable fuel (gasoline, diesel fuel or kerosene) that contains at least 1/10 of one percent taxable fuel. The mixture must be sold by the taxpayer producing such mixture to any person for use as a fuel, or used by the taxpayer producing the mixture as a fuel. The credits expired after December 31, 2014.

A person may file a claim for payment equal to the amount of the alternative fuel credit (but not the alternative fuel mixture credit). The alternative fuel credit must first be applied to the applicable excise tax liability under section 4041 or 4081, and any excess credit may be taken as a payment. These payment provisions generally also expire after December 31, 2014.

For purposes of the alternative fuel credit, alternative fuel mixture credit and related payment provisions, alternative fuel does not include fuel (including lignin, wood residues, or spent pulping liquors) derived from the production of paper or pulp.

In light of the retroactive nature of the provision, as it relates to alternative fuel sold or used in 2015, the provision creates a special rule to address claims regarding excise credits and claims for payment for the period beginning January 1, 2015 and ending on December 31, 2015. In particular, the provision directs the Secretary to issue guidance within 30 days of the date of enactment. Such guidance is to provide for a one-time submission of claims covering periods occurring during 2015. The guidance is to provide for a 180-day period for the submission of such claims (in such manner as prescribed by the Secretary) to begin no later than 30 days after such guidance is issued.⁷⁰³ Such claims shall be paid by the Secretary of the Treasury not later than 60 days after receipt. If the claim is not paid within 60 days of the date of the filing, the claim shall be paid with interest from such date determined by using the overpayment rate and method under section 6621 of such Code.

30. Extension of credit for fuel cell vehicles (sec. 193 of the Act and sec. 30B of the Code)

Present law requires persons to file an information return concerning certain transactions with other persons.⁷⁰⁴ These returns are intended to assist taxpayers in preparing their income tax returns and to help the IRS determine whether such income tax returns are correct and complete.

One of the primary provisions requires every person engaged in a trade or business who makes payments aggregating $600 or more in any taxable year to a single payee in the course of the payor's trade or business to file a return reporting these payments.⁷⁰⁵ Payments subject to this reporting requirement include fixed or determinable income or compensation, but do not include payments for goods or certain enumerated types of payments that are subject to other specific reporting requirements. Other reporting requirements are provided for various types of investment income, including interest, dividends, and gross proceeds from brokered transactions (such as a sale of stock) paid to U.S. persons.⁷⁰⁶

The person filing an information return with respect to payments described above is required to provide the recipient of the payment with a written payee statement showing the aggregate payments made and contact information for the payor.⁷⁰⁷ The statement must be supplied to payees by the payors by January 31 of the following calendar year.⁷⁰⁸ Payors generally must file the information return with the IRS by February 28 of the year following the calendar year for which the return must be filed.⁷⁰⁹ However, the due date for most information returns that are filed electronically is March 31.⁷¹⁰

Information returns regarding wages paid employees

Payors must report wage amounts paid to employees on information returns and provide the employee with an annual statement showing the aggregate wages paid, taxes withheld, and contact information for the payor by January 31 of the following calendar year, using Form W-2, Wage and Tax Statement.⁷¹¹ For wages paid to employees, and taxes withheld from employee wages, the payors must file an information return with the Social Security Administration ("SSA") on or before the last day of February of the year following the calendar year for which the return must be filed, using Form W-3, Transmittal of Wage and Tax Statements.⁷¹² The due date for these information returns that are filed electronically is March 31.

Under the combined annual wage reporting ("CAWR") system, the SSA and the IRS have an agreement, in the form of a Memorandum of Understanding, to share wage data and to resolve, or reconcile, the differences in the wages reported to them. Employers submit Forms W-2, (listing Social Security wages earned by individual employees), and W-3, (providing an aggregate summary of wages paid and taxes withheld) directly to SSA.⁷¹³ After it records the wage information from Forms W-2 and W-3 in its individual Social Security wage account records, SSA forwards the information to IRS.⁷¹⁴

Rules relating to refunds and certain refundable credits

A refund is due to a taxpayer with respect to a taxable year if the taxpayer has made an overpayment of Federal income taxes,⁷¹⁵ to the extent that such overpayment is not required to be applied to offset other liabilities.⁷¹⁶

An individual may reduce his or her tax liability by any available tax credits. In some instances, a permissible credit is "refundable," i.e., it may result in a refund in excess of any credits for withheld taxes or estimated tax payments available to the individual. Two such credits are the child tax credit and the earned income tax credit ("EITC").

An individual may claim a tax credit for each qualifying child under the age of 17. The amount of the credit per child is $1,000. The aggregate amount of child credits that may be claimed is phased out for individuals with income over certain threshold amounts. Specifically, the otherwise allowable child tax credit is reduced by $50 for each $1,000 (or fraction thereof) of modified adjusted gross income over $75,000 for single individuals or heads of households, $110,000 for married individuals filing joint returns, and $55,000 for married individuals filing separate returns. To the extent the child credit exceeds the taxpayer's tax liability, the taxpayer is eligible for a refundable credit ⁷¹⁷ (the additional child tax credit) equal to 15 percent of earned income in excess of $3,000.⁷¹⁸

The EITC is available to low-income workers who satisfy certain requirements. The amount of the EITC varies depending upon the taxpayer's earned income and whether the taxpayer has one, two, more than two, or no qualifying children. In 2015, the maximum EITC is $6,242 for taxpayers with more than two qualifying children, $5,548 for taxpayers with two qualifying children, $3,359 for taxpayers with one qualifying child, and $503 for taxpayers with no qualifying children. The credit amount begins to phaseout at an income level of $23,630 for joint-filers with children, $18,110 for other taxpayers with children, $13,750 for joint-filers with no children and $8,240 for other taxpayers with no qualifying children. The phaseout percentages are 15.98 for taxpayers with one qualifying child, 21.06 for two or more qualifying children and 7.65 for no qualifying children.

For purposes of computing a taxpayer's overpayment of tax, the amount of refundable credits in excess of income tax liability is considered to be an overpayment of tax.⁷¹⁹ Thus, the Internal Revenue Service pays the value of these credits, to the extent they are in excess of a taxpayer's income tax liability, and not applied to off-set other liabilities, to the taxpayer as a refund of tax.

At the time that the taxpayer files a return claiming a refundable credit, the Internal Revenue Service is generally not in possession of information needed to confirm the taxpayer's eligibility for such credit, even though payors must report wage amounts paid to employees on information returns and provide the employee with an annual statement showing the aggregate payments made and contact information for the payor by January 31 of the following calendar year.⁷²⁰

Additionally, the provision requires that no credit or refund for an overpayment for a taxable year shall be made to a taxpayer before the 15th day of the second month following the close of that taxable year, if the taxpayer claimed the EITC or additional child tax credit on the tax return. Individual taxpayers are generally calendar year taxpayers, thus, for most taxpayers who claim the EITC or additional child tax credit this rule would apply such that a refund of tax would not be made to such taxpayer prior to February 15th of the year following the calendar year to which the taxes relate.

2. Safe harbor for de minimis errors on information returns, payee statements, and withholding (sec. 202 of the Act and secs. 6721 and 6722 of the Code)

Any person who is required to file an information return, or furnish a payee statement, but who fails to do so on or before the prescribed due date, is subject to a penalty that varies based on when, if at all, the information return is filed. Both the failure to file and failure to furnish penalties are adjusted annually to account for inflation. In the Trade Preferences Extension Act of 2015,⁷²⁵ the penalties were increased for information returns or payee statements due after December 31, 2015. The penalty amounts, whether they are limited to a maximum amount in a calendar year, and the changes enacted in the Trade Preferences Extension Act, are described below.

Penalties with respect to returns or statement due before January 1, 2016.

If a person files an information return after the prescribed filing date but on or before the date that is 30 days after the prescribed filing date, the amount of the penalty is $30 per return ("first-tier penalty"), with a maximum penalty of $250,000 per calendar year. If a person files an information return after the date that is 30 days after the prescribed filing date but on or before August 1, the amount of the penalty is $60 per return ("second-tier penalty"), with a maximum penalty of $500,000 per calendar year. If an information return is not filed on or before August 1 of any year, the amount of the penalty is $100 per return ("third-tier penalty"), with a maximum penalty of $1,500,000 per calendar year. If a failure to file is due to intentional disregard of a filing requirement, the minimum penalty for each failure is $250, with no calendar year limit.

Lower maximum levels for this failure to file correct information return penalty apply to small businesses. Small businesses are defined as firms having average annual gross receipts for the most recent three taxable years that do not exceed $5 million. The maximum penalties for small businesses are: $75,000 (instead of $250,000) if the failures are corrected on or before 30 days after the prescribed filing date; $200,000 (instead of $500,000) if the failures are corrected on or before August 1; and $500,000 (instead of $1,500,000) if the failures are not corrected on or before August 1.

Any person who is required to furnish a payee statement who fails to do so on or before the prescribed filing date is subject to a penalty that varies based on when, if at all, the payee statement is furnished, similar to the penalty for filing an information return discussed above. A first-tier penalty is $30, subject to a maximum of $250,000, a second-tier penalty is $60 per statement, up to $500,000, and a third-tier penalty is $100, up to a maximum of $1,500,000. Lower maximum levels for this failure to furnish correct payee statement penalty apply to small businesses. Small businesses are defined as firms having average annual gross receipts for the most recent three taxable years that do not exceed $5 million. The maximum penalties for small businesses are: $75,000 (instead of $250,000) if the failures are corrected on or before 30 days after the prescribed filing date; $200,000 (instead of $500,000) if the failures are corrected on or before August 1; and $500,000 (instead of $1,500,000) if the failures are not corrected on or before August 1.

In cases in which the failure to file an information return or to furnish the correct payee statement is due to intentional disregard, the minimum penalty for each failure is $250, with no calendar year limit. No distinction is made between small businesses and other persons required to report.

Penalties with respect to returns or statements due after December 31, 2015

The Trade Preferences Extension Act of 2015 increased the penalties to the following amounts for information returns or payee statements due after December 31, 2015. The first-tier penalty is $50 per return, with a maximum penalty of $500,000 per calendar year. The second-tier penalty increases to $100 per return, with a maximum penalty of $1,500,000 per calendar year. The third-tier penalty increases to $250 per return, with a maximum penalty of $3,000,000 per calendar year.

The lower maximum levels applicable to small businesses also were increased, as follows. The maximum penalties for small businesses are: $175,000 if the failures are corrected on or before 30 days after the prescribed filing date; $500,000 if the failures are corrected on or before August 1; and $1,000,000 if the failures are not corrected on or before August 1.

For failures or misstatements due to intentional disregard, the penalty per return or statement increased to $500, with no calendar year limit. No distinction between small businesses and other persons required to report is made in such cases.

3. Requirements for the issuance of ITINs (sec. 203 of the Act and sec. 6109 of the Code)

Examples of individuals who potentially need an ITIN in order to file a U.S. return include nonresident aliens filing a claim for a reduced withholding rate under treaty benefits, a nonresident alien required to file a U.S. tax return, a U.S. resident alien filing a U.S. tax return, a dependent or spouse of a U.S. citizen or resident alien, or a dependent or spouse of a nonresident alien visa holder.

Taxpayers applying for an ITIN must complete a Form W-7, "Application For IRS Individual Taxpayer Identification Number." For identification purposes, the Form W-7 requires that taxpayers include original documentation such as passports and birth certificates, or certified copies of these documents by the issuing agency. Notarized or apostilized copies of such documentation are insufficient.⁷²⁹ Supporting documentation to establish a taxpayer's identity includes: passport, USCIS photo identification, visa issued by U.S. Department of State, U.S. driver's license, U.S. military identification card, foreign driver's license, foreign military identification card, national identification card (must be current and contain name, photograph, address, DOB, and expiration date), U.S. state identification card, foreign voter registration card, civil birth certificate, medical records (valid only for dependents under age 6), and school records (valid only for dependents under age 14).

The Form W-7, and accompanying original documentation, may be submitted by mail.⁷³⁰ Additionally, a taxpayer may file for an ITIN by bringing completed documentation and forms to an IRS Taxpayer Assistance Center in the United States (which can authenticate passports or national identification cards, and forward the application on for processing) or an IRS office abroad. Taxpayers may also visit an acceptance agent, an individual who may submit a W-7 application on behalf of the taxpayer along with documentary evidence, or, in the case of a certifying acceptance agent, who is authorized by the IRS to verify identifying documents in addition to submitting the Form W-7. Applications submitted with the use of a certifying acceptance agent must be accompanied by a certificate of accuracy, attached to the Form W-7.

Under a policy announced in November 2012 for ITINs issued on or after January 1, 2013, ITINs would automatically expire after five years of the issuance date.⁷³¹ That is, a taxpayer would be required to reapply for a new ITIN after five years if he or she still needed the ITIN for tax filing purposes. On June 30, 2014, the IRS announced that it was revising this policy. Under the revised policy, ITINs would be deactivated only if the ITIN was not used during any tax year for a period of five consecutive years.⁷³²

ITIN application procedures

Under the provision, the Secretary is authorized to issue ITINs to individuals either in person or via mail. In-person applications may be submitted to either: (1) an employee of the Internal Revenue Service or (2) a community-based certified acceptance agent approved by the Secretary.⁷³³ In the case of individuals residing outside of the United States, in-person applications may be submitted to an employee of the Internal Revenue Service or a designee of the Secretary at a United States diplomatic mission or consular post. The provision authorizes the Secretary to establish procedures to accept ITIN applications via mail.

The provision directs the Secretary to maintain a program for certifying and training community-based acceptance agents. Persons eligible to be acceptance agents may include financial institutions, colleges and universities, Federal agencies, State and local governments, including State agencies responsible for vital records, persons that provide assistance to taxpayers in the preparation of their tax returns, and other persons or categories of persons as authorized by regulations or in other guidance by the Secretary.

The provision allows the Secretary to determine what documents are acceptable for purposes of proving an individual's identity, foreign status and residency. However, only original documentation or certified copies meeting the requirements set forth by the Secretary will be acceptable. Additionally, the provision requires the Secretary to develop procedures that distinguish ITINs used by individuals solely for the purpose of obtaining treaty benefits, so as to ensure that such numbers are used only to claim treaty benefits.

Term of ITINs

General rule

Under the provision, any ITIN issued after December 31, 2012 shall expire if not used on a Federal income tax return for a period of three consecutive taxable years (expiring on December 31 of such third consecutive year). The IRS is provided with math error authority related to returns filed with an ITIN that has expired, been revoked by the Secretary, or that is otherwise invalid.

Special rule in the case of ITINs issued prior to 2013

Under the provision, ITINs issued prior to 2013, while remaining subject to the general rule described above,⁷³⁴ will, regardless of whether such ITIN has been used on Federal income tax returns, no longer be valid as of the applicable date, as follows:

 Year ITIN Issued                             Applicable Date

4. Prevention of retroactive claims of earned income credit, child tax credit, and American Opportunity Tax Credit (secs. 204, 205, and 206 of the Act and secs. 24, 25A and 32 of the Code)

An individual may reduce his or her tax liability by any available tax credits. In some instances, a permissible credit is "refundable," i.e., it may result in a refund in excess of any credits for withheld taxes or estimated tax payments available to the individual. Three major credits are the child tax credit, the earned income tax credit ("EITC") and the American opportunity tax credit.

An individual may claim a tax credit for each qualifying child under the age of 17. The amount of the credit per child is $1,000. The aggregate amount of child credits that may be claimed is phased out for individuals with income over certain threshold amounts. Specifically, the otherwise allowable child tax credit is reduced by $50 for each $1,000 (or fraction thereof) of modified adjusted gross income over $75,000 for single individuals or heads of households, $110,000 for married individuals filing joint returns, and $55,000 for married individuals filing separate returns. To the extent the child credit exceeds the taxpayer's tax liability, the taxpayer is eligible for a refundable credit ⁷³⁵ (the additional child tax credit) equal to 15 percent of earned income in excess of $3,000.⁷³⁶

The EITC is available to low-income workers who satisfy certain requirements. The amount of the EITC varies depending upon the taxpayer's earned income and whether the taxpayer has one, two, more than two, or no qualifying children. In 2015, the maximum EITC is $6,242 for taxpayers with more than two qualifying children, $5,548 for taxpayers with two qualifying children, $3,359 for taxpayers with one qualifying child, and $503 for taxpayers with no qualifying children. The credit amount begins to phaseout at an income level of $23,630 for joint-filers with children, $18,110 for other taxpayers with children, $13,750 for joint-filers with no children and $8,240 for other taxpayers with no qualifying children. The phaseout percentages are 15.98 for taxpayers with one qualifying child, 21.06 for two or more qualifying children and 7.65 for no qualifying children.

Certain individual taxpayers are allowed to claim a nonrefundable credit, the Hope credit, against Federal income taxes for qualified tuition and related expenses paid for the first two years of the student's post-secondary education in a degree or certificate program. The American Opportunity tax credit, refers to modifications to the Hope credit that apply for taxable years beginning in 2009 and extended through 2017.⁷³⁷ The maximum allowable modified credit is $2,500 per eligible student per year for qualified tuition and related expenses paid for each of the first four years of the student's post-secondary education in a degree or certificate program. The modified credit rate is 100 percent on the first $2,000 of qualified tuition and related expenses, and 25 percent on the next $2,000 of qualified tuition and related expenses. Forty percent of a taxpayer's otherwise allowable American opportunity tax credit is refundable.

Identification requirements with respect to refundable credits

In order to claim the earned income credit, a taxpayer must include his or her taxpayer identification number (and if the taxpayer is married filing a joint return, the taxpayer identification number of the taxpayer's spouse) on the tax return.⁷³⁸ For these purposes, a taxpayer identification number must be a Social Security number ("SSN") issued by the Social Security Administration.⁷³⁹ Similarly, any child claimed by a taxpayer for purposes of determining the earned income credit must also be affiliated with a taxpayer identification number on the tax return.⁷⁴⁰ Again, for these purposes, such number must be an SSN issued by the Social Security Administration.⁷⁴¹

The child credit may not be claimed with respect to any qualifying child unless the taxpayer includes the name and taxpayer identification number of such qualifying child on the tax return for the taxable year.⁷⁴² For these purposes, taxpayer identification number is not limited to an SSN, as is the case for the earned income credit. Thus, a taxpayer may claim a child using an IRS individual taxpayer identification number ("ITIN"), issued by the IRS for those who are not eligible to be issued an SSN but who still have tax filing obligations. Additionally, a child may be identified on the return using an adoption taxpayer identification number ("ATIN"). There are no specific rules regarding the identifying number affiliated with the taxpayer claiming the child credit. Thus, the general rules applicable to all taxpayers, requiring that an identifying number accompany the return, are applicable.⁷⁴³

For the American opportunity credit (in addition to the other credits with respect to amounts paid for educational expenses), no credit may be claimed by a taxpayer with respect to the qualifying tuition and related expenses of an individual, unless that individual's taxpayer identification number is included on the tax return.⁷⁴⁴ As with the child credit, for these purposes a taxpayer identification number is not limited to a Social Security number. Thus, a taxpayer may claim the credit with the use of an ITIN (either the taxpayer's own ITIN, if they are filing as a non-dependent and claiming tuition expenses incurred on their own behalf, or the ITIN of a dependent to whom the credit relates).

5. Procedures to reduce improper claims (sec. 207 of the Act and secs. 24, 25A, 32, and 6695 of the Code)

Two credits available to individuals use both income level and the presence and number of qualifying children as factors in determining eligibility for the credit: the child tax credit⁷⁴⁵ and the earned income tax credit ("EITC").⁷⁴⁶ Additionally, the Hope credit, the Lifetime Learning credit, and the American opportunity tax credit ("AOTC") are available to taxpayers who meet adjusted gross income requirements as well as specific requirements regarding the payment of tuition and related expenses for secondary-education.

EITC eligibility

Eligibility for the EITC is based on earned income, adjusted gross income, investment income, filing status, number of children, and immigration and work status in the United States. The EITC generally equals a specified percentage of earned income up to a maximum dollar amount. The maximum amount applies over a certain income range and then diminishes to zero over a specified phaseout range. For taxpayers with earned income (or adjusted gross income ("AGI"), if greater) in excess of the beginning of the phaseout range, the maximum EITC amount is reduced by the phaseout rate multiplied by the amount of earned income (or AGI, if greater) in excess of the beginning of the phaseout range. For taxpayers with earned income (or AGI, if greater) in excess of the end of the phaseout range, no credit is allowed.

An individual is not eligible for the EITC if the aggregate amount of disqualified income of the taxpayer for the taxable year exceeds $3,400 (for 2015). This threshold is indexed for inflation. Disqualified income is the sum of: (1) interest (both taxable and tax exempt); (2) dividends; (3) net rent and royalty income (if greater than zero); (4) capital gains net income; and (5) net passive income that is not self-employment income (if greater than zero).

No credit is allowed unless the taxpayer includes the Social Security number of the taxpayer and such taxpayer's spouse, on the tax return. Additionally, a qualifying child is not taken into account for purposes of the EITC unless the child's Social Security number is listed on the tax return.

Child credit eligibility

An individual may claim a child tax credit of $1,000 for each qualifying child under the age of 17,⁷⁴⁷ provided that the child is a citizen, national, or resident of the United States.⁷⁴⁸ The aggregate amount of child credits that may be claimed is phased out for individuals with income over certain threshold amounts. Specifically, the otherwise allowable child tax credit is reduced by $50 for each $1,000 (or fraction thereof) of modified adjusted gross income over $75,000 for single individuals or heads of households, $110,000 for married individuals filing joint returns, and $55,000 for married individuals filing separate returns. For purposes of this limitation, modified adjusted gross income includes certain otherwise excludable income earned by U.S. citizens or residents living abroad or in certain U.S. territories.⁷⁴⁹ If the resulting child credit exceeds the tax liability of the taxpayer, the taxpayer is eligible for a refundable credit (known as the additional child tax credit)⁷⁵⁰ equal to 15 percent of earned income in excess of a threshold dollar amount (the "earned income" formula). Prior to 2009, the threshold dollar amount was $10,000 and was indexed for inflation. For taxable years beginning after 2009 and before January 1, 2018, the threshold amount is $3,000, and is not indexed for inflation. The $3,000 threshold is currently scheduled to expire for taxable years beginning after December 31, 2017, after which the threshold reverts to the indexed $10,000 amount.⁷⁵¹

Families with three or more children may determine the additional child tax credit using the "alternative formula," if this results in a larger credit than determined under the earned income formula. Under the alternative formula, the additional child tax credit equals the amount by which the taxpayer's social security taxes exceed the taxpayer's EIC.

Hope credit, Lifetime Learning credit, and AOTC eligibility

The Hope credit, the Lifetime learning credit, and the AOTC are available to certain taxpayers who incur tuition and related expenses on secondary education.⁷⁵² The AOTC is a modification of the Hope credit, and applies only for taxable years from 2009-2017.⁷⁵³ In the case of the Hope and Lifetime Learning credits, the credit that a taxpayer may otherwise claim is phased out ratably for taxpayers with modified adjusted gross income between $55,000 and $65,000 ($110,000 and $130,000 for married taxpayers filing a joint return). The AOTC is phased out ratably for taxpayers with modified adjusted gross income between $80,000 and $90,000 ($160,000 and $180,000 for married taxpayers filing a joint return), and may be claimed against a taxpayer's AMT liability. 40 percent of a taxpayer's otherwise allowable AOTC is refundable.

The credits vary in availability: The Hope credit is available with respect to an individual student for two years, the AOTC is available for four years, while the Lifetime Learning credit has no limit on availability. For all credits, qualified tuition and related expenses must be incurred on behalf of the taxpayer, the taxpayer's spouse, or a dependent of the taxpayer. The credits are available in the taxable year the tuition and related expenses are paid, subject to the requirement that the education is furnished to the student during that year or during an academic period beginning during the first three months of the next taxable year. Qualified tuition and related expenses paid with the proceeds of a loan generally are eligible for the credits, but repayment of a loan itself is not a qualified tuition or related expense.

A taxpayer may claim the Hope credit, Lifetime Learning credit, or AOTC with respect to an eligible student who is not the taxpayer or the taxpayer's spouse (e.g., in cases in which the student is the taxpayer's child) only if the taxpayer claims the student as a dependent for the taxable year for which the credit is claimed. If a student is claimed as a dependent, the student is not entitled to claim any of the credits for education expenses for that taxable year on the student's own tax return. If a parent (or other tax payer) claims a student as a dependent, any qualified tuition and related expenses paid by the student are treated as paid by the parent (or other taxpayer) for purposes of determining the amount of qualified tuition and related expenses paid by such parent (or other taxpayer) under the provision.

An eligible student for purposes of the Hope credit and AOTC is an individual who is enrolled in a degree, certificate, or other program (including a program of study abroad approved for credit by the institution at which such student is enrolled) leading to a recognized educational credential at an eligible educational institution. The student must pursue a course of study on at least a half-time basis. A student is considered to pursue a course of study on at least a half-time basis if the student carries at least one-half the normal full-time work load for the course of study the student is pursuing for at least one academic period that begins during the taxable year.

Unlike the Hope credit and AOTC, the Lifetime Learning credit is available to students who are enrolled on a part-time basis. To be eligible for the Hope credit and the AOTC, a student must not have been convicted of a Federal or State felony for the possession or distribution of a controlled substance. The Lifetime Learning credit does not contain this requirement.

Diligence required by preparers returns for EITC claimants

Under Section 6695(g) of the Code, a penalty of $500 may be imposed on a person who, as a tax return preparer,⁷⁵⁴ prepares a tax return for a taxpayer claiming the EITC, unless the tax return preparer exercises due diligence with respect to that claim. The due diligence requirements extend to both the determination of eligibility for the credit and the amount of the credit, as prescribed by regulations, which also detail how to document one's compliance with those requirements.⁷⁵⁵ The position taken with respect to the EITC must be based on current and reasonable information that the paid preparer develops, either directly from the taxpayer or by other reasonable means. The preparer may not ignore implications of information provided by taxpayers, and is expected to make reasonable inquiries about incorrect, inconsistent or incomplete information.

The conclusions about eligibility and computation, as well as the steps taken to develop those conclusions, must be documented, using Form 8867, "Paid Preparer's Earned Income Credit Checklist," which is filed with the return.⁷⁵⁶ The basis for the computation of the credit must also be documented, either on a Computation Worksheet, or in an alternative record containing the requisite information. The preparer is required to maintain that documentation for three years.

The penalty may be waived with respect to a particular return or claim for refund on the basis of all facts and circumstances. The preparer must establish that he routinely follows reasonable office procedures to ensure compliance. The failure to comply with the requirements must be isolated and inadvertent.⁷⁵⁷ The enhanced duties of due diligence required with respect to the EITC do not extend to other refundable credits.

There are no separately stated due diligence requirements for paid tax return preparers who prepare Federal income tax returns on which a child tax credit or the AOTC is claimed.

The provision also requires the Secretary to conduct a study evaluating the effectiveness of tax return preparer due diligence requirements for the EITC, child tax credit and AOTC. The study with respect to the EITC shall be completed one year from the date of enactment (December 18, 2015), and the study regarding the child credit and the AOTC shall be due two years from the date of enactment.

6. Restrictions on taxpayers who improperly claimed credits in prior year (sec. 208 of the Act and secs. 24, 25A and 6213 of the Code)

An individual may reduce his or her tax liability by any available tax credits. In some instances, a permissible credit is "refundable," i.e., it may result in a refund in excess of any credits for withheld taxes or estimated tax payments available to the individual. Three major credits are the child tax credit, the earned income credit and the American opportunity tax credit.

An individual may claim a tax credit for each qualifying child under the age of 17. The amount of the credit per child is $1,000. The aggregate amount of child credits that may be claimed is phased out for individuals with income over certain threshold amounts. Specifically, the otherwise allowable child tax credit is reduced by $50 for each $1,000 (or fraction thereof) of modified adjusted gross income over $75,000 for single individuals or heads of households, $110,000 for married individuals filing joint returns, and $55,000 for married individuals filing separate returns. To the extent the child credit exceeds the taxpayer's tax liability, the taxpayer is eligible for a refundable credit⁷⁵⁸ (the additional child tax credit) equal to 15 percent of earned income in excess of $3,000.⁷⁵⁹

A refundable earned income tax credit ("EITC") is available to low-income workers who satisfy certain requirements. The amount of the EITC varies depending upon the taxpayer's earned income and whether the taxpayer has one, two, more than two, or no qualifying children. In 2015, the maximum EITC is $6,242 for taxpayers with more than two qualifying children, $5,548 for taxpayers with two qualifying children, $3,359 for taxpayers with one qualifying child, and $503 for taxpayers with no qualifying children. The credit amount begins to phaseout at an income level of $23,630 for joint-filers with children, $18,110 for other taxpayers with children, $13,750 for joint-filers with no children and $8,240 for other taxpayers with no qualifying children. The phaseout percentages are 15.98 for taxpayers with one qualifying child, 21.06 for two or more qualifying children and 7.65 for no qualifying children.

Certain individual taxpayers are allowed to claim a nonrefundable credit, the Hope credit, against Federal income taxes for qualified tuition and related expenses paid for the first two years of the student's post-secondary education in a degree or certificate program. The American Opportunity tax credit, refers to modifications to the Hope credit that apply for taxable years beginning in 2009 and extended through 2017.⁷⁶⁰ The maximum allowable modified credit is $2,500 per eligible student per year for qualified tuition and related expenses paid for each of the first four years of the student's post-secondary education in a degree or certificate program. The modified credit rate is 100 percent on the first $2,000 of qualified tuition and related expenses, and 25 percent on the next $2,000 of qualified tuition and related expenses. 40 percent of a taxpayer's otherwise allowable American opportunity tax credit is refundable.

Disallowance period with respect to the earned income credit

A taxpayer who was previously disallowed the EITC may not claim the EITC for a period of ten taxable years after the most recent taxable year for which there was a final determination that the taxpayer's claim of credit was due to fraud. Such disallowance period is two years in the case of a taxpayer for which there was a final determination that the taxpayer's EITC claim was due to reckless or intentional disregard of rules and regulations (but not to fraud).

Additionally, in the case of a taxpayer who was previously denied the EITC for any taxable year as a result of IRS deficiency procedures, the taxpayer may not claim an EITC in subsequent years unless the taxpayer provides a Form 8862 with the tax return, so as to demonstrate eligibility for the EITC in that taxable year.

Math error authority

The Federal income tax system relies upon self-reporting and assessment. A taxpayer is expected to prepare a report of his liability⁷⁶¹ and submit it to the Internal Revenue Service ("IRS") with any payment due. The Code provides general authority for the IRS to assess all taxes shown on returns,⁷⁶² other than certain Federal unemployment tax and estimated income taxes.⁷⁶³ The assessment is required to be made by recording the liability in the "office of the Secretary" in a manner determined under regulations.⁷⁶⁴ If the IRS determines that the assessment was materially incorrect, additional tax must be assessed within the limitations period.⁷⁶⁵

The authority to assess the additional tax may be subject to certain restrictions on assessment known as the deficiency procedures.⁷⁶⁶ A deficiency of tax occurs if the amount of certain taxes⁷⁶⁷ assessed for a period, after reduction for any rebates of tax, is less than the liability determined under the Code. Generally, in the case of income taxes, if the IRS questions whether the correct tax liability has been self-assessed by a taxpayer, the IRS generally first informs the taxpayer by letter. Most discrepancies in income tax liability identified by the IRS are resolved through such "correspondence audits." In other cases, an examining agent reviews the return and determines whether an adjustment in income tax reported on the return is required. The determination by the examining agent that an adjustment to the return is required results in a notice to the taxpayer that provides an opportunity for the taxpayer to invoke rights to an administrative appeal or to agree to the adjustments within 30 days. If the taxpayer responds timely and disputes the adjustments, the case is referred to an independent administrative appeals officer for review. In most cases, the taxpayer and the IRS agree on the merit or lack of merit of the adjustments proposed, and the cases are closed without issuance of a notice of deficiency. If the parties do not reach agreement administratively, the IRS must issue a formal notice of deficiency to a taxpayer,⁷⁶⁸ which begins a period within which a taxpayer may petition the U.S. Tax Court. During that period, as well as during the pendency of any proceeding in Tax Court, assessment of the deficiency is not permitted.⁷⁶⁹

There are several exceptions to the restrictions on assessment of taxes that are generally subject to the deficiency procedures.⁷⁷⁰ One of the principal exceptions is the authority to assess without issuance of a notice of deficiency if the error is a result of a mathematical or clerical error, generally referred to as math error authority. If the mistake on the return is of a type that is within the meaning of mathematical or clerical error, the IRS assesses the tax and sends notice of the math error to the taxpayer. Purely mathematical or clerical issues are often identified early in the processing of a return, prior to issuance of any refund; they are not typically identified as a result of an examination of a return.⁷⁷¹ Although most math errors identified by the IRS resulted in the assessment of additional tax, over 2.6 million of the 6.6 million math errors identified in FY2011⁷⁷² involved adjustments in taxpayers' favor for credits to which taxpayers were entitled but had failed to claim, mostly commonly the "Making Work Pay Credit" for taxable year 2010.

Since 1976, the issuance of a notice of math error begins a 60 day period within which a taxpayer may submit a request for abatement of the math error adjustment, which then requires the IRS to abate the assessment and refer the unresolved issue for examination.⁷⁷³ The IRS Data Books do not report the number of abatements of math error assessments.

The scope of IRS math error authority now encompasses numerous issues, many of which concern rules regarding refundable credits.⁷⁷⁴ The summary assessment is used to deny a claimed credit or deduction, either during initial processing of a return on which the credit is claimed or in an examination of the return after the refund has been issued. For example, in 2009, the authority was expanded to cover several grounds on which a homebuyer credit could be disallowed.⁷⁷⁵ These grounds include (1) an omission of any increase in tax required by the recapture provisions of the credit; (2) information from the person issuing the taxpayer identification number of the taxpayer that indicates that the taxpayer does not meet the age requirement of the credit; (3) information provided to the Secretary by the taxpayer on an income tax return for at least one of the two preceding taxable years that is inconsistent with eligibility for such credit; or (4) failure to attach to the return a properly executed copy of the settlement statement used to complete the purchase.

Additionally, the provision requires that taxpayers who were previously denied the child tax credit or the American opportunity tax credit in any taxable year as a result of IRS deficiency procedures to provide additional information demonstrating eligibility for such credit, as required by the Secretary.

The provision would add the following items to the list of circumstances in which the IRS has authority to make an assessment as a math error: (1) a taxpayer claimed the EITC,⁷⁷⁶ child tax credit, or the AOTC during the period in which a taxpayer is not permitted to claim such credit as a consequence of having made a prior fraudulent or reckless claim; and (2) there was an omission of information required by the Secretary relating to a taxpayer making improper prior claims of the child tax credit or the AOTC.

7. Treatment of credits for purposes of certain penalties (sec. 209 of the Act and secs. 6664 and 6676 of the Code)

Under present law, an accuracy-related penalty or a fraud penalty may be imposed on certain underpayments of tax.⁷⁷⁷ The Code imposes a 20-percent penalty on the portion of an underpayment attributable to: negligence or disregard of rules or regulations, a substantial understatement, a substantial valuation overstatement, a substantial overstatement of pension liabilities, a substantial estate or gift tax valuation understatements, any disallowance of tax benefits by reason of lacking economic substance, or any undisclosed foreign financial asset understatement.⁷⁷⁸ A penalty of 75 percent of an underpayment is imposed in the case of fraud. An exception to these penalties for reasonable cause generally applies.⁷⁷⁹ An underpayment, for this purpose, means the excess of the amount of tax imposed over the amount of tax shown on the return.⁷⁸⁰

These penalties are assessed in the same manner as taxes.⁷⁸¹ In the case of income taxes, a taxpayer may contest any deficiency in tax determined by the IRS in the Tax Court before an assessment of the tax may be made.⁷⁸² Generally a deficiency in tax is the excess of the amount of tax imposed over the amount of tax shown on the return.⁷⁸³

The Code allows certain credits against the income tax.⁷⁸⁴ Most of the credits may not exceed the taxpayer's income tax. However certain credits ("refundable credits") may exceed the tax and the amount of these credits in excess of the tax imposed (reduced by the other credits) is an overpayment which creates a refund or credit.⁷⁸⁵ Refundable credits include a portion of the child credit, the American opportunity tax credit, and the earned income credit.⁷⁸⁶

In determining a deficiency in tax, the refundable credits in excess of tax are treated as negative amounts of tax.⁷⁸⁷ Thus, the amounts of tax imposed and the tax shown on the return may be negative amounts. The Code does not provide a similar rule for the determination of an underpayment for purposes of the penalties.⁷⁸⁸

The Tax Court ruled that for purposes of determining the amount of an underpayment for purposes of the penalty provisions, the tax shown on the return may not be less than zero.⁷⁸⁹ Thus, no accuracy-related penalty or fraud penalty may be imposed to the extent the refundable credits reduce the tax imposed below zero.

Erroneous claims

Present law imposes a penalty of 20 percent on the amount by which a claim for refund or credit exceeds the amount allowable unless it is shown that the claim has a reasonable basis.⁷⁹⁰ The penalty does not apply to claims relating to the earned income credit. The penalty does not apply to the portion of any claim to which the accuracy-related and fraud penalties apply. The deficiency procedures do not apply to this penalty.

The provision also repeals the exception from the erroneous claims penalty for the earned income credit and changes the standard for penalty relief from reasonable basis to reasonable cause.

The provision repealing the exception from the erroneous claim penalty is effective for claims filed after the date of enactment.

The provision relating to reasonable cause is effective for claims filed after the date of enactment.⁷⁹¹

8. Increase the penalty applicable to paid tax preparers who engage in willful or reckless conduct (sec. 210 of the Act and sec. 6694 of the Code)

9. Employer identification number required for American opportunity tax credit (sec. 211 of the Act and secs. 25A and 6050S of the Code)

Certain individual taxpayers are allowed to claim a nonrefundable credit, the Hope credit, against Federal income taxes for qualified tuition and related expenses paid for the first two years of the student's post-secondary education in a degree or certificate program. The American Opportunity tax credit, refers to modifications to the Hope credit that apply for taxable years beginning in 2009 and extended through 2017.⁷⁹⁵ The maximum allowable modified credit is $2,500 per eligible student per year for qualified tuition and related expenses paid for each of the first four years of the student's post-secondary education in a degree or certificate program. The modified credit rate is 100 percent on the first $2,000 of qualified tuition and related expenses, and 25 percent on the next $2,000 of qualified tuition and related expenses. 40 percent of a taxpayer's otherwise allowable American opportunity tax credit is refundable.

For the American opportunity credit (in addition to the other credits with respect to amounts paid for educational expenses), no credit may be claimed by a taxpayer with respect to the qualifying tuition and related expenses of an individual, unless that individual's taxpayer identification number is included on the tax return.⁷⁹⁶ The Code imposes no reporting requirement with respect to the identity of the educational institution attended by the individual.

Section 6050S of the Code imposes reporting requirements, related to higher education tax benefits, on eligible educational institutions and certain other persons.⁷⁹⁷ Eligible educational institutions are subject to the reporting requirements if the institution enrolls any individual for any academic period. The information return must include the name, address, and taxpayer identification number of any individual (a) who is or has been enrolled at an eligible education institution and with respect to whom certain transactions are made or (b) with respect to whom certain payments were made or received. Additionally, eligible educational institutions are required to provide the following information: (a) the aggregate amount of payments received or the aggregate amount billed for qualified tuition and related expenses during the calendar year; (b) the aggregate amount of grants received by the individual for payment of costs of attendance that are administered and processed by the institution during the calendar year; and (c) the amount of any adjustments to the aggregate amounts reported under (a) or (b) with respect to the individual for a prior calendar year.

The provision modifies the reporting requirements under section 6050S of the Code to require an educational institution to provide its employer identification number on the Form 1098-T.⁷⁹⁸

The provision modifying the information reporting requirements is effective for expenses paid after December 31, 2015, for education furnished in academic periods beginning after such date.

10. Higher education information reporting only to include qualified tuition and related expenses actually paid (sec. 212 of the Act and sec. 6050S of the Code)

2. Modification of rules relating to section 529 programs (sec. 302 of the Act and sec. 529 of the Code)⁸⁰¹

In general

A qualified tuition program is a program established and maintained by a State or agency or instrumentality thereof, or by one or more eligible educational institutions, which satisfies certain requirements and under which a person may purchase tuition credits or certificates on behalf of a designated beneficiary that entitle the beneficiary to the waiver or payment of qualified higher education expenses of the beneficiary (a "prepaid tuition program"). Section 529 provides specified income tax and transfer tax rules for the treatment of accounts and contracts established under qualified tuition programs.⁸⁰² In the case of a program established and maintained by a State or agency or instrumentality thereof, a qualified tuition program also includes a program under which a person may make contributions to an account that is established for the purpose of satisfying the qualified higher education expenses of the designated beneficiary of the account, provided it satisfies certain specified requirements (a "savings account program"). Under both types of qualified tuition programs, a contributor establishes an account for the benefit of a particular designated beneficiary to provide for that beneficiary's higher education expenses.

In general, prepaid tuition contracts and tuition savings accounts established under a qualified tuition program involve prepayments or contributions made by one or more individuals for the benefit of a designated beneficiary. Decisions with respect to the contract or account are typically made by an individual who is not the designated beneficiary. Qualified tuition accounts or contracts generally require the designation of a person (generally referred to as an "account owner")⁸⁰³ whom the program administrator (oftentimes a third party administrator retained by the State or by the educational institution that established the program) may look to for decisions, recordkeeping, and reporting with respect to the account established for a designated beneficiary. The person or persons who make the contributions to the account need not be the same person who is regarded as the account owner for purposes of administering the account. Under many qualified tuition programs, the account owner generally has control over the account or contract, including the ability to change designated beneficiaries and to withdraw funds at any time and for any purpose. Thus, in practice, qualified tuition accounts or contracts generally involve a contributor, a designated beneficiary, an account owner (who often times is not the contributor or the designated beneficiary), and an administrator of the account or contract.

Qualified higher education expenses

For purposes of receiving a distribution from a qualified tuition program that qualifies for favorable tax treatment under the Code, qualified higher education expenses means tuition, fees, books, supplies, and equipment required for the enrollment or attendance of a designated beneficiary at an eligible educational institution, and expenses for special needs services in the case of a special needs beneficiary that are incurred in connection with such enrollment or attendance. Qualified higher education expenses generally also include room and board for students who are enrolled at least half-time. For taxable years 2009 and 2010 only, qualified higher education expenses included the purchase of any computer technology or equipment, or Internet access or related services, if such technology or services were to be used by the beneficiary or the beneficiary's family during any of the years a beneficiary was enrolled at an eligible institution.

Contributions to qualified tuition programs

Contributions to a qualified tuition program must be made in cash. Section 529 does not impose a specific dollar limit on the amount of contributions, account balances, or prepaid tuition benefits relating to a qualified tuition account; however, the program is required to have adequate safeguards to prevent contributions in excess of amounts necessary to provide for the beneficiary's qualified higher education expenses. Contributions generally are treated as a completed gift eligible for the gift tax annual exclusion. Contributions are not tax deductible for Federal income tax purposes, although they may be deductible for State income tax purposes. Amounts in the account accumulate on a tax-free basis (i.e., income on accounts in the plan is not subject to current income tax).

A qualified tuition program may not permit any contributor to, or designated beneficiary under, the program to direct (directly or indirectly) the investment of any contributions (or earnings thereon) more than two times in any calendar year, and must provide separate accounting for each designated beneficiary. A qualified tuition program may not allow any interest in an account or contract (or any portion thereof) to be used as security for a loan.

Distributions from qualified tuition programs

Distributions from a qualified tuition program are excludable from the distributee's gross income to the extent that the total distribution does not exceed the qualified higher education expenses incurred for the beneficiary.⁸⁰⁴

If a distribution from a qualified tuition program exceeds the qualified higher education expenses incurred for the beneficiary, the amount includible in gross income is determined, first, by applying the annuity rules of section 72⁸⁰⁵ to determine the amount which would be includible in gross income if none of the amount distributed was for qualified higher education expenses and, then, reducing that amount by an amount which bears the same ratio to that amount as the qualified higher education expenses bear to the amount of the distribution.⁸⁰⁶

For example, assume a taxpayer had $5,000 in a qualified tuition program account, $4,000 of which was the amount contributed. Also assume the taxpayer withdraws $1,000 from the account and $500 is used for qualified higher education expenses. First, the taxpayer applies the annuity rules of section 72 which results in $200 being included in income under section 72 assuming none of the distribution is used for qualified higher education expenses. Then the taxpayer reduces the $200 by one-half because 50 percent of the distribution was used for qualified higher education expenses. Thus, $100 is includible in gross income. This amount is subject to an additional 10-percent tax (unless an exception applies).

The Code provides that, except as provided by the Secretary of the Treasury ("Secretary"), for purposes of this calculation, the taxpayer's account value, income, and investment amount, are generally measured as of December 31st of the taxable year in which the distribution was made. The Secretary has issued guidance providing that the earnings portion of a distribution is to be computed on the date of each distribution.⁸⁰⁷

In the case of an individual who is the designated beneficiary for more than one qualified tuition program, all such accounts are aggregated for purposes of calculating the earnings in the account under section 72. The Secretary has provided in guidance that this aggregation is required only in the case of accounts contained within the same 529 program, having the same account owner and the same designated beneficiary.⁸⁰⁸

First, the provision provides that qualified higher education expenses include the purchase of computer or peripheral equipment (as defined in section 168(i)(2)(B)), computer software (as defined in section 197(e)(3)(B)), or Internet access and related services if the equipment, software, or services are to be used primarily by the beneficiary during any of the years the beneficiary is enrolled at an eligible education institution.

Second, the provision repeals the rules providing that section 529 accounts must be aggregated for purposes of calculating the amount of a distribution that is included in a taxpayer's income. Thus, in the case of a designated beneficiary who has received multiple distributions from a qualified tuition program in the taxable year, the portion of a distribution that represents earnings is now to be computed on a distribution-by-distribution basis, rather than an aggregate basis, such that the computation applies to each distribution from an account. The following example illustrates the operation of this provision: Assume that two designated savings accounts⁸⁰⁹ have been established by the same account owner within the same qualified tuition program for the same designated beneficiary. Account A contains $20,000, all of which consists of contributed amounts (i.e., it has no earnings). Account B contains $30,000, $20,000 of which constitutes an investment in the account, and $10,000 attributable to earnings on that investment. Assume a taxpayer were to receive a $10,000 distribution from Account A, with none of the proceeds being spent on qualified higher education expenses. Under present law, both of the designated beneficiary's accounts would be aggregated for purposes of computing earnings. Thus, $2,000 of the $10,000 distribution from Account A ($10,000 * $10,000/$50,000) would be included in the designated beneficiary's income. Under the provision, the accounts would not be aggregated for purposes of determining earnings on the account. Thus, because Account A has no earnings, no amount of the distribution would be included in the designated beneficiary's income for the taxable year.

Third, the provision creates a new rule that provides, in the case of a designated beneficiary who receives a refund of any higher education expenses, any distribution that was used to pay the refunded expenses shall not be subject to tax if the designated beneficiary recontributes the refunded amount to the qualified tuition program within 60 days of receiving the refund, only to the extent that such recontribution is not in excess of the refund. A transition rule allows for recontributions of amounts refunded after December 31, 2014, and before the date of enactment (December 18, 2015) to be made not later than 60 days after the enactment of this provision.

3. Modification to qualified ABLE programs (sec. 303 of the Act and sec. 529A of the Code)

The Code provides for a tax-favored savings program intended to benefit disabled individuals, known as qualified ABLE programs.⁸¹⁰ A qualified ABLE program is a program established and maintained by a State or agency or instrumentality thereof. A qualified ABLE program must meet the following conditions: (1) under the provisions of the program, contributions may be made to an account (an "ABLE account"), established for the purpose of meeting the qualified disability expenses of the designated beneficiary of the account; (2) the program must limit a designated beneficiary to one ABLE account; (3) the program must allow for the establishment of ABLE accounts only for a designated beneficiary who is either a resident of the State maintaining such ABLE program or a resident of a State that has not established an ABLE program (a "contracting State") which has entered into a contract with such State to provide the contracting State's residents with access to the State's ABLE program; and (4) the program must meet certain other requirements discussed below. A qualified ABLE program is generally exempt from income tax, but is otherwise subject to the taxes imposed on the unrelated business income of tax-exempt organizations.

A designated beneficiary of an ABLE account is the owner of the ABLE account. A designated beneficiary must be an eligible individual (defined below) who established the ABLE account and who is designated at the commencement of participation in the qualified ABLE program as the beneficiary of amounts paid (or to be paid) into and from the program.

Contributions to an ABLE account must be made in cash and are not deductible for Federal income tax purposes. Except in the case of a rollover contribution from another ABLE account, an ABLE account must provide that it may not receive aggregate contributions during a taxable year in excess of the amount under section 2503(b) of the Code (the annual gift tax exemption). For 2015, this is $14,000.⁸¹¹ Additionally, a qualified ABLE program must provide adequate safeguards to ensure that ABLE account contributions do not exceed the limit imposed on accounts under the qualified tuition program of the State maintaining the qualified ABLE program. Amounts in the account accumulate on a tax-deferred basis (i.e., income on accounts under the program is not subject to current income tax).

A qualified ABLE program may permit a designated beneficiary to direct (directly or indirectly) the investment of any contributions (or earnings thereon) no more than two times in any calendar year and must provide separate accounting for each designated beneficiary. A qualified ABLE program may not allow any interest in the program (or any portion thereof) to be used as security for a loan.

Distributions from an ABLE account are generally includible in the distributee's income to the extent consisting of earnings on the account.⁸¹² Distributions from an ABLE account are excludable from income to the extent that the total distribution does not exceed the qualified disability expenses of the designated beneficiary during the taxable year. If a distribution from an ABLE account exceeds the qualified disability expenses of the designated beneficiary, a pro rata portion of the distribution is excludable from income. The portion of any distribution that is includible in income is subject to an additional 10-percent tax unless the distribution is made after the death of the beneficiary. Amounts in an ABLE account may be rolled over without income tax liability to another ABLE account for the same beneficiary⁸¹³ or another ABLE account for the designated beneficiary's brother, sister, stepbrother or stepsister who is also an eligible individual.

Except in the case of an ABLE account established in a different ABLE program for purposes of transferring ABLE accounts,⁸¹⁴ no more than one ABLE account may be established by a designated beneficiary. Thus, once an ABLE account has been established by a designated beneficiary, no account subsequently established by such beneficiary shall be treated as an ABLE account.

A contribution to an ABLE account is treated as a completed gift of a present interest to the designated beneficiary of the account. Such contributions qualify for the per-donee annual gift tax exclusion ($14,000 for 2015) and, to the extent of such exclusion, are exempt from the generation skipping transfer ("GST") tax. A distribution from an ABLE account generally is not subject to gift tax or GST tax.

Eligible individuals

As described above, a qualified ABLE program may provide for the establishment of ABLE accounts only if those accounts are established and owned by an eligible individual, such owner referred to as a designated beneficiary. For these purposes, an eligible individual is an individual either (1) for whom a disability certification has been filed with the Secretary for the taxable year, or (2) who is entitled to Social Security Disability Insurance benefits or SSI benefits⁸¹⁵ based on blindness or disability, and such blindness or disability occurred before the individual attained age 26.

A disability certification means a certification to the satisfaction of the Secretary, made by the eligible individual or the parent or guardian of the eligible individual, that the individual has a medically determinable physical or mental impairment, which results in marked and severe functional limitations, and which can be expected to result in death or which has lasted or can be expected to last for a continuous period of not less than 12 months, or is blind (within the meaning of section 1614(a)(2) of the Social Security Act). Such blindness or disability must have occurred before the date the individual attained age 26. Such certification must include a copy of the diagnosis of the individual's impairment and be signed by a licensed physician.⁸¹⁶

Qualified disability expenses

As described above, the earnings on distributions from an ABLE account are excluded from income only to the extent total distributions do not exceed the qualified disability expenses of the designated beneficiary. For this purpose, qualified disability expenses are any expenses related to the eligible individual's blindness or disability which are made for the benefit of the designated beneficiary. Such expenses include the following expenses: education, housing, transportation, employment training and support, assistive technology and personal support services, health, prevention and wellness, financial management and administrative services, legal fees, expenses for oversight and monitoring, funeral and burial expenses, and other expenses, which are approved by the Secretary under regulations and consistent with the purposes of section 529A.

Transfer to State

In the event that the designated beneficiary dies, subject to any outstanding payments due for qualified disability expenses incurred by the designated beneficiary, all amounts remaining in the deceased designated beneficiary's ABLE account not in excess of the amount equal to the total medical assistance paid such individual under any State Medicaid plan established under title XIX of the Social Security Act shall be distributed to such State upon filing of a claim for payment by such State. Such repaid amounts shall be net of any premiums paid from the account or by or on behalf of the beneficiary to the State's Medicaid Buy-In program.

Treatment of ABLE accounts under Federal programs

Any amounts in an ABLE account, and any distribution for qualified disability expenses, shall be disregarded for purposes of determining eligibility to receive, or the amount of, any assistance or benefit authorized by any Federal means-tested program. However, in the case of the SSI program, a distribution for housing expenses is not disregarded, nor are amounts in an ABLE account in excess of $100,000. In the case that an individual's ABLE account balance exceeds $100,000, such individual's SSI benefits shall not be terminated, but instead shall be suspended until such time as the individual's resources fall below $100,000. However, such suspension shall not apply for purposes of Medicaid eligibility.

Treatment of ABLE accounts in bankruptcy

Property of a bankruptcy estate may not include certain amounts contributed to an ABLE account, if the designated beneficiary of such account was a child, stepchild, grandchild or stepgrandchild of the debtor during the taxable year in which funds were placed in the account. Such funds shall be excluded from the bankruptcy estate only to the extent that they were contributed to an ABLE account at least 365 days prior to the filing of the title 11 petition, are not pledged or promised to any entity in connection with any extension of credit, and are not excess contributions as defined in new section 4973(h). In the case of funds contributed to an ABLE account that are contributed not earlier than 720 days (and not later than 365 days) prior to the filing of the petition, only up to $6,225 may be excluded.

4. Exclusion from gross income of certain amounts received by wrongly incarcerated individuals (sec. 304 of the Act and new sec. 139F of the Code)

A wrongfully incarcerated individual means an individual:

(1) who was convicted of a covered offense;

(2) who served all or part of a sentence of imprisonment relating to that covered offense; and

(3)(i) was pardoned, granted clemency, or granted amnesty for such offense because the individual was innocent, or

(ii) for whom the judgment of conviction for the offense was reversed or vacated, and whom the indictment, information, or other accusatory instrument for that covered offense was dismissed or who was found not guilty at a new trial after the judgment of conviction for that covered offense was reversed or vacated.

For these purposes, a covered offense is any criminal offense under Federal or State law, and includes any criminal offense arising from the same course of conduct as that criminal offense.

The provision contains a special rule allowing individuals to make a claim for credit or refund of any overpayment of tax resulting from the exclusion, even if such claim would be disallowed under the Code or by operation of any law or rule of law (including res judicata), if the claim for credit or refund is filed before the close of the one-year period beginning on the date of enactment (December 18, 2015).

5. Clarification of special rule for certain governmental plans (sec. 305 of the Act and sec. 105(j) of the Code)⁸¹⁹

Under a limited exception, reimbursements under a plan do not fail to be excluded from income solely because the plan provides for reimbursements of medical expenses of a deceased employee's beneficiary, without regard to whether the beneficiary is the employee's surviving spouse, dependent, or child under age 27.⁸²² In order for the exception to apply, the plan must have provided, on or before January 1, 2008, for reimbursement of the medical expenses of a deceased employee's beneficiary. In addition, the plan must be funded by a medical trust (1) that is established in connection with a public retirement system, and (2) that either has been authorized by a State legislature, or has received a favorable ruling from the IRS that the trust's income is not includible in gross income by reason of the exclusion for income of a State or political subdivision.⁸²³ This exception preserves the exclusion for reimbursements of expenses of the employee and the employee's spouse, dependents, and children under age 27 (or the employee's surviving spouse, dependents, and children under age 27). Reimbursements of expenses of other beneficiaries are included in income.

The provision also clarifies that this exception preserves the exclusion for reimbursements of expenses of the employee and the employee's spouse, dependents, and children under age 27, or the employee's surviving spouse, dependents, and children under age 27 (referred to under the provision as "qualified taxpayers") and that, as under present law, reimbursements of expenses of other beneficiaries are included in income.

6. Rollovers permitted from other retirement plans into SIMPLE retirement accounts (sec. 306 of the Act and sec. 408(p)(1)(B) of the Code)

Distributions from employer-sponsored retirement plans and IRAs (including SIMPLE plans) are generally includible in gross income, except to the extent the amount distributed represents a return of after-tax contributions (that is, basis). The portion of a distribution made before age 59 1/2, death, or disability that is includible in gross income is generally subject to an additional 10-percent income tax.⁸²⁸ Early withdrawals from a SIMPLE plan generally are subject to the additional 10-percent tax. However, in the case of a SIMPLE IRA, early withdrawals during the two-year period beginning on the date the employee first participated in the SIMPLE IRA are subject to an additional 25 percent tax.⁸²⁹

If certain requirements are met, distributions from employer-sponsored retirement plans and IRAs generally may generally be rolled over on a nontaxable basis to another employer-sponsored retirement plan or IRA. However, a distribution from a SIMPLE IRA during the two-year period beginning on the date the employee first participated in the SIMPLE IRA may be rolled over only to another SIMPLE IRA. In addition, because the only contributions that may be made to a SIMPLE IRA are contributions under a SIMPLE plan, distributions from other employer-sponsored retirement plans and IRAs cannot be rolled over to a SIMPLE IRA, even after this two-year period.

7. Technical amendment relating to rollover of certain airline payment amounts (sec. 307 of the Act and sec. 1106 of the FAA Modernization and Reform Act of 2012)

The Code provides for two types of individual retirement arrangements ("IRAs"): traditional IRAs and Roth IRAs.⁸³⁰

Contributions to a traditional IRA may be deductible from gross income, or nondeductible contributions may be made, which result in "basis." Distributions from a traditional IRA are includible in gross income to the extent not treated as a return of basis (that is, if attributable to deductible contributions or earnings).

Contributions to a Roth IRA are not deductible (and result in basis), and qualified distributions from a Roth IRA are excludable from gross income. Distributions from a Roth IRA that are not qualified distributions are includible in gross income to the extent not treated as a return of basis (that is, if attributable to earnings). In general, a qualified distribution from a Roth IRA is a distribution that (1) is made after the five taxable year period beginning with the first taxable year for which the individual first made a contribution to a Roth IRA, and (2) is made on or after the individual attains age 59 1/2, death, or disability or which is a qualified special purpose distribution.

The total amount that an individual may contribute to one or more IRAs for a year (other than a rollover contribution, discussed below) is generally limited to the lesser of: (1) a dollar amount ($5,500 for 2015, plus $1,000 if the individual is age 50 or older); or (2) the amount of the individual's compensation that is includible in gross income for the year. In the case of married individuals filing a joint return, a contribution up to the dollar limit for each spouse may be made, provided the combined compensation of the spouses is at least equal to the contributed amount.

Subject to certain requirements, an individual may roll a distribution from an IRA over to an IRA of the same type on a non-taxable basis (that is, without income inclusion). In addition, an individual generally may convert a traditional IRA to a Roth IRA. In that case, the amount converted is includible in income as if a distribution from the traditional IRA had been made.

Rollover of airline payments to traditional IRAs

Under the FAA Modernization and Reform Act of 2012 ("2012 FAA Act"), if a qualified airline employee contributes any portion of an airline payment amount to a traditional IRA within 180 days of receipt of the amount (or, if later, within 180 days of February 14, 2012, the date of enactment of the 2012 FAA Act), the amount contributed is treated as a rollover contribution to the IRA.⁸³¹ A qualified airline employee making such a rollover contribution may exclude the contributed amount from gross income for the taxable year in which the airline payment amount was paid to the qualified airline employee.

For this purpose, a qualified airline employee is an employee or former employee of a commercial passenger airline carrier who was a participant in a qualified defined benefit plan maintained by the carrier that was terminated or that became subject to the benefit accrual and other restrictions applicable to certain plans under the Pension Protection Act of 2006 ("PPA").⁸³² If a qualified airline employee dies after receiving an airline payment amount, or if an airline payment amount is paid to a surviving spouse of a qualified airline employee, the surviving spouse may receive the same roll-over contribution treatment (and the related exclusion from income) as the employee could have received.

An airline payment amount is any payment of any money or other property payable by a commercial passenger airline to a qualified airline employee: (1) under the approval of an order of a Federal bankruptcy court in a case filed after September 11, 2001, and before January 1, 2007, and (2) in respect of the qualified airline employee's interest in a bankruptcy claim against the airline carrier, any note of the carrier (or amount paid in lieu of a note being issued), or any other fixed obligation of the carrier to pay a lump sum amount. An airline payment amount does not include any amount payable on the basis of the carrier's future earnings or profits. The amount of any airline payment amount is determined without regard to the withholding of the employee's share of taxes under the Federal Insurance Contributions Act ("FICA") or income tax.⁸³³ Thus, for purposes of the rollover provision and the related exclusion from income, the gross amount of the airline payment amount (before withholding) applies.

The ability to contribute airline payment amounts to a traditional IRA as a rollover contribution (and the related exclusion from income) is subject to limitations. First, a qualified airline employee is not permitted to contribute an airline payment amount to a traditional IRA for a taxable year if, at any time during the taxable year or a preceding taxable year, the employee was a "covered employee," that is, the principal executive officer (or an individual acting in such capacity) within the meaning of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 or among the three most highly compensated officers for the taxable year (other than the principal executive officer), of the commercial passenger airline carrier making the airline payment amount.⁸³⁴ Second, in the case of a qualified airline employee who was not at any time a covered employee, the amount that may be contributed to a traditional IRA for a taxable year cannot exceed the excess (if any) of (1) 90 percent of the aggregate airline payment amounts received during the taxable year and all preceding taxable years, over (2) the aggregate amount contributed to a traditional IRA (and excluded from income) for all preceding taxable years ("90 percent limitation").

Under the 2012 FAA Act, a qualified airline employee who excludes from income an airline payment amount contributed to a traditional IRA may file a claim for a refund until the later of: (1) the usual period of limitation (generally, three years from the time the return was filed or two years from the time the tax was paid, whichever period expires later),⁸³⁵ or (2) April 15, 2013.

The definition of qualified airline employee under the 2012 FAA Act was amended in 2014 to include an employee or former employee of a commercial passenger airline carrier who was a participant in a qualified defined benefit plan maintained by the carrier that was frozen (that is, under which all benefit accruals ceased) as of November 1, 2012 ("2014 amendments").⁸³⁶ The 2014 amendments also amended the definition of airline payment amount under the 2012 FAA Act to include any payment of any money or other property payable by a commercial passenger airline (but not any amount payable on the basis of the carrier's future earnings or profits) to a qualified airline employee: (1) under the approval of an order of a Federal bankruptcy court in a case filed on November 29, 2011, and (2) in respect of the qualified airline employee's interest in a bankruptcy claim against the airline carrier, any note of the carrier (or amount paid in lieu of a note being issued), or any other fixed obligation of the carrier to pay a lump sum amount. Thus, as a result of the 2014 amendments, if a qualified airline employee (other than a covered employee as described above) under a qualified defined benefit plan that was frozen as of November 1, 2012, receives an airline payment amount under a Federal bankruptcy order in a case filed on November 29, 2011, and, subject to the 90 percent limitation described above, contributes any portion of the airline payment amount to a traditional IRA within 180 days of receipt of the amount, the amount contributed is treated as a rollover contribution to the traditional IRA and may be excluded from gross income for the taxable year in which the airline payment amount was paid to the qualified airline employee.⁸³⁷

Unlike the 2012 FAA Act, the 2014 amendments did not contain a provision to allow previously made payments that came within the definition of airline payment amounts as a result of the amendments to be rolled over within 180 days after enactment.⁸³⁸

8. Treatment of early retirement distributions for nuclear materials couriers, United States Capitol Police, Supreme Court Police, and diplomatic security special agents (sec. 308 of the Act and sec. 72(t) of the Code)

Under a special rule for qualified public safety employees, the separation from service exception applies to distributions from a governmental defined benefit pension plan if the employee separates from service after age 50 (rather than age 55). A qualified public safety employee is an employee of a State or political subdivision of a State if the employee provides police protection, firefighting services, or emergency medical services for any area within the jurisdiction of such State or political subdivision.

The special rule for applying the separation from service exception to qualified public safety employees was revised by the Defending Public Safety Employees' Retirement Act, effective for distributions after December 31, 2015.⁸⁴¹ First, the definition of qualified public safety employee was expanded to include Federal law enforcement officers, Federal customs and border protection officers, Federal firefighters, and air traffic controllers.⁸⁴² In addition, the special rule was extended to distributions from governmental defined contribution plans (rather than just governmental defined benefit plans).⁸⁴³

9. Prevention of extension of tax collection period for members of the Armed Forces who are hospitalized as a result of combat zone injuries (sec. 309 of the Act and secs. 6502 and 7508(e) of the Code)⁸⁴⁵

The Code provides that collection activities generally may only occur within ten years after assessment.⁸⁴⁷ The effect of the provisions described above is to extend the 10-year collection period for combat zone taxpayers.

A real estate investment trust ("REIT") is an entity that otherwise would be taxed as a U.S. corporation but elects to be taxed under a special REIT tax regime. To qualify as a REIT, an entity must meet a number of requirements. At least 90 percent of REIT income (other than net capital gain) must be distributed annually;⁸⁴⁸ the REIT must derive most of its income from passive, generally real estate-related, investments; and REIT assets must be primarily real estate-related. In addition, a REIT must have transferable interests and at least 100 shareholders, and no more than 50 percent of the REIT interests may be owned by five or fewer individual shareholders (as determined using specified attribution rules). Other requirements also apply.⁸⁴⁹

If an electing entity meets the requirements for REIT status, the portion of its income that is distributed to its shareholders as a dividend or qualifying liquidating distribution each year is deductible by the REIT (whereas a regular subchapter C corporation cannot deduct such distributions).⁸⁵⁰ As a result, the distributed income of the REIT is not taxed at the entity level; instead, it is taxed only at the investor level. Although a REIT is not required to distribute more than the 90 percent of its income described above to retain REIT status, it is taxed at ordinary corporate rates on amounts not distributed or treated as distributed.⁸⁵¹

A REIT may designate a capital gain distribution to its shareholders, who treat the designated amount as long-term capital gain when distributed. A REIT also may retain net capital gain and pay corporate income tax on the amount retained, while the shareholders include the undistributed capital gain in income, obtain a credit for the corporate tax paid, and step up the basis of their REIT stock for the amount included in income.⁸⁵² In this manner, capital gain also is taxed only once, whether or not distributed, rather than at both the entity and investor levels.

Income tests

A REIT is restricted to earning certain types of generally passive income. Among other requirements, at least 75 percent of the gross income of a REIT in each taxable year must consist of real estate-related income. Such income includes: rents from real property; gain from the sale or other disposition of real property (including interests in real property) that is not stock in trade of the taxpayer, inventory, or other property held by the taxpayer primarily for sale to customers in the ordinary course of its trade or business; interest on mortgages secured by real property or interests in real property; and certain income from foreclosure property (the "75-percent income test").⁸⁵³ Qualifying rents from real property include rents from interests in real property and charges for services customarily furnished or rendered in connection with the rental of real property,⁸⁵⁴ but do not include impermissible tenant service income.⁸⁵⁵ Impermissible tenant service income includes amounts for services furnished by the REIT to tenants or for managing or operating the property, other than amounts attributable to services that are provided by an independent contractor or taxable REIT subsidiary, or services that certain tax exempt organizations could perform under the section 512(b)(3) rental exception from unrelated business taxable income.⁸⁵⁶ Qualifying rents from real property include rent attributable to personal property which is leased under, or in connection with, a lease of real property, but only if the rent attributable to such personal property for the taxable year does not exceed 15 percent of the total rent for the taxable year attributable to both the real and personal property leased under, or in connection with, the lease.⁸⁵⁷

In addition, rents received from any entity in which the REIT owns more than 10 percent of the vote or value generally are not qualifying income.⁸⁵⁸ However, there is an exception for certain rents received from taxable REIT subsidiaries (described further below), in which a REIT may own more than 10 percent of the vote or value.

In addition, 95 percent of the gross income of a REIT for each taxable year must be from the 75-percent income sources and a second permitted category of other, generally passive sources such as dividends and interest (the "95-percent income test").⁸⁵⁹

A REIT must be a U.S. domestic entity, but it is permitted to hold foreign real estate or other foreign assets, provided the 75-percent and 95-percent income tests and the other requirements for REIT qualification are met.⁸⁶⁰

Asset tests

At least 75 percent of the value of a REIT's assets must be real estate assets, cash and cash items (including receivables), and Government securities⁸⁶¹ (the "75-percent asset test").⁸⁶² Real estate assets are real property (including interests in real property and interests in mortgages on real property) and shares (or transferable certificates of beneficial interest) in other REITs.⁸⁶³ No more than 25 percent of a REIT's assets may be securities other than such real estate assets.⁸⁶⁴

Except with respect to securities of a taxable REIT subsidiary, not more than five percent of the value of a REIT's assets may be securities of any one issuer, and the REIT may not possess securities representing more than 10 percent of the outstanding value or voting power of any one issuer.⁸⁶⁵ In addition, not more than 25 percent of the value of a REIT's assets may be securities of one or more taxable REIT subsidiaries.⁸⁶⁶

The asset tests must be met as of the close of each quarter of a REIT's taxable year. However, a REIT that has met the asset tests as of the close of any quarter does not lose its REIT status solely because of a discrepancy during a subsequent quarter between the value of the REIT's investments and such requirements, unless such discrepancy exists immediately after the acquisition of any security or other property and is wholly or partly the result of such acquisition.⁸⁶⁷

Taxable REIT subsidiaries

A REIT generally cannot own more than 10 percent of the vote or value of a single entity. However, there is an exception for ownership of a taxable REIT subsidiary ("TRS") that is taxed as a corporation, provided that securities of one or more TRSs do not represent more than 25 percent of the value of REIT assets.

A TRS generally can engage in any kind of business activity except that it is not permitted directly or indirectly to operate either a lodging facility or a health care facility, or to provide to any other person (under a franchise, license, or otherwise) rights to any brand name under which any lodging facility or health care facility is operated.⁸⁶⁸

However, a TRS may rent a lodging facility or health care facility from its parent REIT and is permitted to hire an independent con tractor⁸⁶⁹ to operate such facility. Rent paid to the parent REIT by the TRS with respect to hotel, motel, or other transient lodging facility operated by an independent contractor is qualified rent for purposes of the REIT's 75-percent and 95-percent income tests.⁸⁷⁰ This lodging facility rental rule is an exception to the general rule that rent paid to a REIT by any corporation (including a TRS) in which the REIT owns 10 percent or more of the vote or value is not qualified rental income for purposes of the 75-percent or 95-percent REIT income tests.⁸⁷¹ There is also an exception to the general rule in the case of a TRS that rents space in a building owned by its parent REIT if at least 90 percent of the space in the building is rented to unrelated parties and the rent paid by the TRS to the REIT is comparable to the rent paid by the unrelated parties.⁸⁷²

REITs are subject to a tax equal to 100 percent of redetermined rents, redetermined deductions, and excess interest. These are de fined generally as the amounts of specified REIT transactions with a TRS of the REIT, to the extent such amounts differ from an arm's length amount.⁸⁷³

Prohibited transactions tax

REITs are subject to a prohibited transaction tax ("PTT") of 100 percent of the net income derived from prohibited transactions. For this purpose, a prohibited transaction is a sale or other disposition of property by the REIT that is "stock in trade of a taxpayer or other property which would properly be included in the inventory of the taxpayer if on hand at the close of the taxable year, or property held for sale to customers by the taxpayer in the ordinary course of his trade or business"⁸⁷⁴ and is not foreclosure property. The PTT for a REIT does not apply to a sale if the REIT satisfies certain safe harbor requirements in section 857(b)(6)(C) or (D), including an asset holding period of at least two years.⁸⁷⁵ If the conditions are met, a REIT may either (1) make no more than seven sales within a taxable year (other than sales of foreclosure property or involuntary conversions under section 1033), or (2) sell either no more than 10 percent of the aggregate bases, or no more than 10 percent of the aggregate fair market value, of all its assets as of the beginning of the taxable year (computed without regard to sales of foreclosure property or involuntary conversions under section 1033), without being subject to the PTT tax.⁸⁷⁶

REIT shareholder tax treatment

Although a REIT typically does not pay corporate level tax due to the deductible distribution of its income, and thus is sometimes compared to a partnership or S corporation, REIT equity holders are not treated as being engaged in the underlying activities of the REIT as are partners or S corporation shareholders, and the activities at the REIT level that characterize its income do not generally flow through to equity owners to characterize the tax treatment of REIT distributions to them. A distribution to REIT shareholders out of REIT earnings and profits is generally treated as an ordinary income REIT dividend and is treated as ordinary income taxed at the shareholder's normal rates on such income.⁸⁷⁷ However, a REIT is permitted to designate a "capital gain dividend" to the extent a distribution is made out of its net capital gain.⁸⁷⁸ Such a dividend is treated as long-term capital gain to the shareholders.⁸⁷⁹

REIT shareholders are not taxed on REIT income unless the income is distributed to them (except in the case of REIT net capital gain retained by the REIT and designated for inclusion in the shareholder's income as explained in the preceding footnote). However, since a REIT must distribute 90 percent of its ordinary income annually, and typically will distribute or designate its income as capital gain dividends to avoid a tax at the REIT level, REIT income generally is taxed in full at the shareholder level annually.

REIT shareholders are not entitled to any share of REIT losses to offset against other shareholder income. However, if the REIT itself has income, its losses offset its income in determining how much it is required to distribute to meet the distribution requirements. Also, REIT losses that reduce earnings and profits can cause a distribution that exceeds the REIT's earnings and profits to be treated as a nontaxable return of capital to its shareholders.

Tax exempt shareholders

A tax exempt shareholder is exempt from tax on REIT dividends, and is not treated as engaging in any of the activities of the REIT. As one example, if the REIT borrowed money and its income at the REIT level were debt-financed, a tax exempt shareholder would not have debt-financed unrelated business income from the REIT dividend.

Foreign shareholders

Except as provided by the Foreign Investment in Real Property Tax Act of 1980 ("FIRPTA"),⁸⁸⁰ a REIT shareholder that is a foreign corporation or a nonresident alien individual normally treats its dividends as fixed and determinable annual and periodic income that is subject to withholding under section 1441 but not treated as active business income that is effectively connected with the conduct of a U.S. trade or business, regardless of the level of real estate activity of the REIT in the United States.⁸⁸¹ A number of treaties permit a lower rate of withholding on REIT dividends than the Code would otherwise require.

Although FIRPTA applies in many cases to foreign investment in U.S. real property through a REIT, REITs offer foreign investors some ability to invest in U.S real property interests without subjecting gain on the sale of REIT stock to FIRPTA (for example, if the REIT is domestically controlled).⁸⁸² In general, if any class of stock of a corporation is regularly traded on an established securities market, stock of such class is subject to FIRPTA only in the case of a person who, at some time during the testing period, held more than 5 percent of such class of stock.⁸⁸³ Also, if the REIT stock is publicly traded and the foreign investor does not own more than five percent of such stock, the investor can receive distributions from the sale by the REIT of U.S. real property interests without such distributions being subject to FIRPTA.⁸⁸⁴

1. Restriction on tax-free spinoffs involving REITs (sec. 311 of the Act and secs. 355 and 856 of the Code)

An exception to these rules applies if the distribution of the stock of a controlled corporation satisfies the requirements of section 355. If all the requirements are satisfied, there is no tax to the distributing corporation or to the shareholders on the distribution.

One requirement to qualify for tax-free treatment under section 355 is that both the distributing corporation and the controlled corporation must be engaged immediately after the distribution in the active conduct of a trade or business that has been conducted for at least five years and was not acquired in a taxable transaction during that period (the "active business test").⁸⁸⁸

For this purpose, the active business test is satisfied only if (1) immediately after the distribution, the corporation is engaged in the active conduct of a trade or business, or (2) immediately before the distribution, the corporation had no assets other than stock or securities in the controlled corporations and each of the controlled corporations is engaged immediately after the distribution in the active conduct of a trade or business.⁸⁸⁹ For this purpose, the active business test is applied by reference to the relevant affiliated group rather than on a single corporation basis. For the parent distributing corporation, the relevant affiliated group consists of the distributing corporation as the common parent and all corporations affiliated with the distributing corporation through stock ownership described in section 1504(a)(1) (regardless of whether the corporations are otherwise includible corporations under section 1504(b)),⁸⁹⁰ immediately after the distribution. The relevant affiliated group for a controlled distributed subsidiary corporation is determined in a similar manner (with the controlled corporation as the common parent).

In determining whether a corporation is directly engaged in an active trade or business that satisfies the requirement, IRS ruling practice formerly required that the value of the gross assets of the trade or business being relied on must ordinarily constitute at least five percent of the total fair market value of the gross assets of the corporation directly conducting the trade or business.⁸⁹¹ The IRS suspended this specific rule in connection with its general administrative practice of moving IRS resources away from advance rulings on factual aspects of section 355 transactions in general.⁸⁹²

Section 355 does not apply to an otherwise qualifying distribution if, immediately after the distribution, either the distributing or the controlled corporation is a disqualified investment corporation and any person owns a 50 percent interest in such corporation and did not own such an interest before the distribution. A disqualified investment corporation is a corporation of which two-thirds or more of its asset value is comprised of certain passive investment assets. Real estate is not included as such an asset.⁸⁹³

The IRS has ruled that a REIT may satisfy the active business requirement through its rental activities.⁸⁹⁴ More recently, the IRS has issued a private ruling indicating that a REIT that has a TRS can satisfy the active business requirement by virtue of the active business of its TRS.⁸⁹⁵ Thus, a C corporation that owns REIT-qualified assets may create a REIT to hold such assets and spin off that REIT without tax consequences to it or its shareholders (if the newly-formed REIT satisfies the active business requirement through its rental activities or the activities of a TRS). Following the spin-off, income from the assets held in the REIT is no longer subject to corporate level tax (unless there is a disposition of such assets that incurs tax under the built in gain rules).

A controlled corporation will be treated as meeting the control requirements if the stock of such corporation was distributed by a TRS in a transaction to which section 355 (or so much of section 356 as relates to section 355) applies and the assets of such corporation consist solely of the stock or assets held by one or more TRSs of the distributing corporation meeting the control requirements noted above.

If a corporation that is not a REIT was a distributing or controlled corporation with respect to any distribution to which section 355 applied, such corporation (and any successor corporation) shall not be eligible to make a REIT election for any taxable year beginning before the end of the 10-year period beginning on the date of such distribution.

2. Reduction in percentage limitation on assets of REIT which may be taxable REIT subsidiaries (sec. 312 of the Act and sec. 856 of the Code)

There is an exception from these rules in the case of a TRS.⁹⁰¹ No more than 25 percent of the value of total REIT assets may consist of securities of one or more TRSs.⁹⁰²

3. Prohibited transaction safe harbors (sec. 313 of the Act and sec. 857 of the Code)

The additional requirements for the safe harbor limit the amount of expenditures the REIT or a partner of the REIT can make during the two-year period prior to the sale that are includible in the adjusted basis of the property. Also, if more than seven sales are made during the taxable year, substantially all marketing and development expenditures with respect to the property must have been made through an independent contractor from whom the REIT itself does not derive or receive any income.

The provision clarifies that the determination of whether property is described in section 1221(a)(1) is made without regard to whether or not such property qualifies for the safe harbor from the prohibited transactions rules.

4. Repeal of preferential dividend rule for publicly offered REITs; authority for alternative remedies to address certain REIT distribution failures (secs. 314 and 315 of the Act and sec. 562 of the Code)

Similar rules apply to regulated investment companies ("RICs").⁹⁰⁸ However, the preferential dividend rule does not apply to a publicly offered RIC (as defined in section 67(c)(2)(B)).⁹⁰⁹

For other REITs, the provision provides the Secretary of the Treasury with authority to provide an appropriate remedy to cure the failure of the REIT to comply with the preferential dividend requirements in lieu of not considering the distribution to be a dividend for purposes of computing the dividends-paid deduction where the Secretary determines the failure to comply is inadvertent or is due to reasonable cause and not due to willful neglect, or the failure is a type of failure identified by the Secretary as being so described.

The provision granting authority to the Secretary of the Treasury to provide alternative remedies addressing certain REIT distribution failures applies to distributions in taxable years beginning after December 31, 2015.

5. Limitations on designation of dividends by REITs (sec. 316 of the Act and sec. 857 of the Code)

A REIT may designate dividends that it pays or is treated as paying during the year as qualified dividend income.⁹¹² Qualified dividend income is taxed to individuals at the same tax rate as net capital gain, under rules enacted by the Taxpayer Relief Act of 1997.⁹¹³ The amount that may be designated as qualified dividend income for any taxable year is limited to qualified dividend income received by the REIT plus some amounts subject to corporate taxation at the REIT level.

The IRS has ruled that a RIC may designate the maximum amount permitted under each of the provisions allowing a RIC to designate dividends even if the aggregate of all the designated amounts exceeds the total amount of the RIC's dividends distributions.⁹¹⁴

The IRS also has ruled that if a RIC has two or more classes of stock and it designates the dividends that it pays on one class as consisting of more than that class's proportionate share of a particular type of income, the designations are not effective for federal tax purposes to the extent that they exceed the class's proportionate share of that type of income.⁹¹⁵ The Internal Revenue Service announced that it would provide guidance that RICs and REITs must use in applying the capital gain provision enacted by the Tax payer Relief Act of 1997.⁹¹⁶ The announcement referred to the designation limitations of Revenue Ruling 89-91.

The provision provides the Secretary of the Treasury authority to prescribe regulations or other guidance requiring the proportionality of the designation for particular types of dividends (for example, capital gain dividends) among shares or beneficial interests in a REIT.

6. Debt instruments of publicly offered REITs and mortgages treated as real estate assets (sec. 317 of the Act and sec. 856 of the Code)

Except with respect to a TRS, not more than five percent of the value of a REIT's assets may be securities of any one issuer, and the REIT may not possess securities representing more than 10 percent of the outstanding value or voting power of any one issuer.⁹²⁰ No more than 25 percent of the value of a REIT's assets may be securities of one or more TRSs.⁹²¹

The asset tests must be met as of the close of each quarter of a REIT's taxable year.⁹²²

At least 75 percent of a REIT's gross income must be from certain real estate related and other items. In addition, at least 95 percent of a REIT's gross income must be from specified sources that include the 75 percent items and also include interest, dividends, and gain from the sale or other disposition of securities (whether or not real estate-related).

As under present law, income from debt instruments issued by publicly offered REITs that is interest income or gain from the sale or other disposition of a security is treated as qualified income for purposes of the 95-percent gross income test. Income from debt instruments issued by publicly offered REITs that would not have been treated as real estate assets but for the new provision, however, is not qualified income for purposes of the 75-percent income test, and not more than 25 percent of the value of a REIT's total assets is permitted to be represented by such debt instruments.

7. Asset and income test clarification regarding ancillary personal property (sec. 318 of the Act and sec. 856 of the Code)

Among other requirements, at least 75 percent of the gross income of a REIT in each taxable year must consist of real estate-related income. Such income includes: rents from real property; income from the sale or exchange of real property (including interests in real property) that is not stock in trade, inventory, or held by the taxpayer primarily for sale to customers in the ordinary course of its trade or business; interest on mortgages secured by real property or interests in real property; and certain income from foreclosure property (the "75-percent income test"). Amounts attributable to most types of services provided to tenants (other than certain "customary services"), or to more than specified amounts of personal property, are not qualifying rents.

The Code definition of rents from real property includes rent attributable to personal property which is leased under, or in connection with, a lease of real property, but only if the rent attributable to such property for the taxable year does not exceed 15 percent of the total rent for the taxable year attributable to both the real and personal property leased under, or in connection with, such lease.⁹²³

For purposes of determining whether interest income is from a mortgage secured by real property, Treasury regulations provide that where a mortgage covers both real property and other property, an apportionment of the interest must be made. If the loan value of the real property is equal to or exceeds the amount of the loan, then the entire interest income is apportioned to the real property. However, if the amount of the loan exceeds the loan value of the real property, then the interest income apportioned to the real property is an amount equal to the interest income multiplied by a fraction, the numerator of which is the loan value of the real property and the denominator of which is the amount of the loan.⁹²⁴ The remainder of the interest income is apportioned to the other property.

The loan value of real property is defined as the fair market value of the property determined as of the date on which the commitment by the REIT to make the loan becomes binding on the REIT. In the case of a loan purchased by a REIT, the loan value of the real property is the fair market value of the real property determined as of the date on which the commitment of the REIT to purchase the loan becomes binding.⁹²⁵

75-percent asset test

At the close of each quarter of the taxable year, at least 75 per cent of the value of a REIT's total assets must be represented by real estate assets, cash and cash items, and Government securities.

Real estate assets generally mean real property (including interests in real property and interests in mortgages on real property) and shares (or transferable certificates of beneficial interest) in other REITs.

Neither the Code nor regulations address the allocation of value in cases where real property and personal property may both be present.

The provision also modifies the present-law rules for determining when an obligation secured by a mortgage is considered secured by a mortgage on real property if the security includes personal property as well. Under the provision, in the case of an obligation secured by a mortgage on both real property and personal property, if the fair market value of such personal property does not exceed 15 percent of the total fair market value of all such property, such personal property is treated as real property for purposes of the 75-percent income and 75-percent asset test computations.⁹²⁶ In making this determination, the fair market value of all property (both personal and real) is determined at the same time and in the same manner as the fair market value of real property is determined for purposes of apportioning interest income between real property and personal property under the rules for determining whether interest income is from a mortgage secured by real property.

8. Hedging provisions (sec. 319 of the Act and sec. 857 of the Code)

The provision is intended to extend the current treatment of income from certain REIT hedging transactions as income that is disregarded for purposes of the 75-percent and 95-percent income tests to income from positions that primarily manage risk with respect to a prior hedge that a REIT enters in connection with the extinguishment or disposal (in whole or in part) of the liability or asset (respectively) related to such prior hedge, to the extent the new position qualifies as a section 1221 hedge or would so qualify if the hedged position were ordinary property.

The provision also clarifies that the identification requirement that applies to all hedges under the hedge gross income rules is the requirement described in section 1221(a)(7), determined after taking account of any curative provisions provided under the regulations referred to therein.

9. Modification of REIT earnings and profits calculation to avoid duplicate taxation (sec. 320 of the Act and secs. 562 and 857 of the Code)

In the case of a REIT, the current earnings and profits of a REIT are not reduced by any amount which is not allowable as a deduction in computing its taxable income for the taxable year.⁹³⁰ In addition, for purposes of computing the deduction for dividends paid by a REIT for a taxable year, earnings and profits are increased by the total amount of gain on the sale or exchange of real property by the trust during the year.⁹³¹

These rules can by illustrated by the following example:

Example. -- Assume that a REIT had $100 of taxable income and earnings and profits in each of five consecutive taxable years (determined without regard to any energy efficient commercial building deduction⁹³² and without regard to any deduction for dividends paid). Assume that in the first of the five years, the REIT had an energy efficient commercial building deduction in computing its taxable income of $10, reducing its pre-dividend taxable income to $90. Assume further that the deduction is allowable at a rate of $2 per year over the five-year period beginning with the first year in computing its earnings and profits.

Under present law, the REIT's earnings and profits in the first year are $98 ($100 less $2). In each of the next four years, the REIT's current earnings and profits are $100 ($98 as computed for the first year plus an additional $2 under section 857(d)(1) for the $2 not deductible in computing taxable income for the year).

Assume the REIT distributes $100 to its shareholders at the close of each of the five years. Under present law, the shareholders have $98 dividend income in the first year and a $2 return of capital and $100 dividend income in each of the following four years, for a total of $498 dividend income, notwithstanding that the REIT had only $490 pre-dividend taxable income over the period. The dividends paid by the REIT reduce its taxable income to zero in each of the taxable years.

In addition, the provision provides that the current earnings and profits of a REIT for a taxable year for purposes of computing the deduction for dividends paid are increased by any amount of gain on the sale or exchange of real property taken into account in determining the taxable income of the REIT for the taxable year (to the extent the gain is not otherwise so taken into account). Thus, in the case of an installment sale of real property, current earnings and profits for purposes of the REIT's deduction for dividends paid for a taxable year are increased by the amount of gain taken into account in computing its taxable income for the year and not otherwise taken into account in computing the current earnings and profits.

The following illustrates the application of the provision:

Example. -- Assume the same facts as in the above example. Under the provision, as under present law, in the first taxable year, the earnings and profits of the REIT were $98 and the shareholders take into account $98 dividend income and $2 is a return of capital. Under the provision, in each of the next four years, the earnings and profits are $98 (i.e., section 857(d)(1) does not apply) so that the shareholders take into account $98 of dividend income in each year and $2 is a return of capital each year.

For purposes of the REIT's deduction for dividends paid, present law remains unchanged so that the REIT's taxable income will be reduced to zero in each of the taxable years.

10. Treatment of certain services provided by taxable REIT subsidiaries (sec. 321 of the Act and sec. 857 of the Code)

A TRS generally can engage in any kind of business activity except that it is not permitted directly or indirectly to operate either a lodging facility or a health care facility, or to provide to any other person (under a franchise, license, or otherwise) rights to any brand name under which any lodging facility or health care facility is operated.

REITs are subject to a tax equal to 100 percent of redetermined rents, redetermined deductions, and excess interest. These are de fined generally as the amounts of specified REIT transactions with a TRS of the REIT, to the extent such amounts differ from an arm's length amount.

Prohibited transactions tax

REITs are subject to a prohibited transaction tax ("PTT") of 100 percent of the net income derived from prohibited transactions.⁹³³ For this purpose, a prohibited transaction is a sale or other disposition of property by the REIT that is stock in trade of a taxpayer or other property that would properly be included in the inventory of the taxpayer if on hand at the close of the taxable year, or property held for sale to customers by the taxpayer in the ordinary course of his trade or business and is not foreclosure property. The PTT for a REIT does not apply to a sale of property which is a real estate asset if the REIT satisfies certain criteria in section 857(b)(6)(C) or (D).

Section 857(b)(6)(C) provides that a prohibited transaction does not include a sale of property which is a real estate asset (as defined in section 856(c)(5)(B)) and which is described in section 1221(a)(1) if (1) the REIT has held the property for not less than two years; (2) aggregate expenditures made by the REIT, or any partner of the REIT, during the two year period preceding the date of sale which are includible in the basis of the property do not exceed 30 percent of the net selling price of the property; (3) either: (A) the REIT does not make more than seven sales of property⁹³⁴ during the taxable year, or (B) the aggregate adjusted bases (as determined for purposes of computing earnings and profits) of property⁹³⁵ sold during the taxable year does not exceed 10 percent of the aggregate bases (as so determined) of all of the assets of the REIT as of the beginning of the taxable year, or (C) the fair market value of property⁹³⁶ sold during the taxable year does not exceed 10 percent of the aggregate fair market value of all the assets of the REIT as of the beginning of the taxable year; (4) in the case of land or improvements, not acquired through foreclosure (or deed in lieu of foreclosure), or lease termination, the REIT has held the property for not less than two years for production of rental income; and (5) if the requirement of (3)(A) above is not satisfied, substantially all of the marketing and development expenditures with respect to the property were made through an independent contractor (as defined in section 856(d)(3)) from whom the REIT does not derive or receive any income.

Section 857(b)(6)(D) provides that a prohibited transaction does not include a sale of property which is a real estate asset (as defined in section 856(c)(5)(B)) and which is described in section 1221(a)(1) if (1) the REIT has held the property for not less than two years in connection with the trade or business of producing timber; (2) the aggregate expenditures made by the REIT, or any partner of the REIT, during the two year period preceding the date of sale which (A) are includible in the basis of the property (other than timberland acquisition expenditures), and (B) are directly related to operation of the property for the production of timber or for the preservation of the property for use as a timberland, do not exceed 30 percent of the net selling price of the property; (3) the aggregate expenditures made by the REIT, or a partner of the REIT, during the two year period preceding the date of sale which (A) are includible in the basis of the property (other than timberland acquisition expenditures), and (B) are not directly related to operation of the property for the production of timber or for the preservation of the property for use as a timberland, do not exceed five percent of the net selling price of the property; (4) either: (A) the REIT does not make more than seven sales of property⁹³⁷ during the taxable year, or (B) the aggregate adjusted bases (as determined for purposes of computing earnings and profits) of property⁹³⁸ sold during the taxable year does not exceed 10 percent of the aggregate bases (as so determined) of all of the as sets of the REIT as of the beginning of the taxable year, or (C) the fair market value of property⁹³⁹ sold during the taxable year does not exceed 10 percent of the aggregate fair market value of all the assets of the REIT as of the beginning of the taxable year; (5) if the requirement of (4)(A) above is not satisfied, substantially all of the marketing expenditures with respect to the property were made through an independent contractor (as defined in section 856(d)(3)) from whom the REIT does not derive or receive any income, or, in the case of a sale on or before the termination date, a TRS; and (6) the sales price of the property sold by the trust is not based in whole or in part on income or profits derived from the sale or operation of such property.

Foreclosure property

Under current law, certain income and gain derived from foreclosure property satisfies the 95-percent and 75-percent REIT income tests.⁹⁴⁰ Property will cease to be foreclosure property, how ever, if used in a trade or business conducted by the REIT, other than through an independent contractor from which the REIT itself does not derive or receive any income, more than 90 days after the day on which the REIT acquired such property.⁹⁴¹

The provision also allows a TRS to make marketing expenditures with respect to property under section 857(b)(6)(C)(v) or 857(b)(6)(D)(v) without causing property that is otherwise eligible for the prohibited transaction exclusion to lose such qualification.

The provision allows a TRS to operate foreclosure property without causing loss of foreclosure property status, under section 856(e)(4)(C).

The items subject to the 100-percent excise tax on certain non-arm's-length transactions between a TRS and a REIT are expanded to include "redetermined TRS service income." Such income is defined as gross income of a TRS of a REIT attributable to services provided to, or on behalf of, such REIT (less the deductions properly allocable thereto) to the extent the amount of such income (less such deductions) would be increased on distribution, apportionment, or allocation under section 482 (but for the exception from section 482 if the 100-percent excise tax applies). The term does not include gross income attributable to services furnished or rendered to a tenant of the REIT (or deductions properly attributable thereto), since that income is already subject to a separate provision of the 100-percent excise tax rules.

11. Exception from FIRPTA for certain stock of REITs; exception for interests held by foreign retirement and pension funds (secs. 322 and 323 of the Act and secs. 897 and 1445 of the Code)⁹⁴³

A foreign person that is not engaged in the conduct of a trade or business in the United States generally is not subject to any U.S. tax on capital gain from U.S. sources, including capital gain from the sale of stock or other capital assets.⁹⁴⁴

However, the Foreign Investment in Real Property Tax Act of 1980 ("FIRPTA")⁹⁴⁵ generally treats a foreign person's gain or loss from the disposition of a U.S. real property interest ("USRPI") as income that is effectively connected with the conduct of a U.S. trade or business, and thus taxable at the income tax rates applicable to U.S. persons, including the rates for net capital gain.⁹⁴⁶ With certain exceptions, if a foreign corporation distributes a USRPI, gain is recognized on the distribution (including a distribution in redemption or liquidation) of a USRPI, in an amount equal to the excess of the fair market value of the USRPI (as of the time of distribution) over its adjusted basis.⁹⁴⁷ A foreign person subject to tax on FIRPTA gain is required to file a U.S. tax return under the normal rules relating to receipt of income effectively connected with a U.S. trade or business.⁹⁴⁸

The payor of amounts that FIRPTA treats as effectively connected with a U.S. trade or business ("FIRPTA income") to a foreign person generally is required to withhold U.S. tax from the payment.⁹⁴⁹ Withholding generally is 10 percent of the sales price, in the case of a direct sale by the foreign person of a USRPI (but withholding is not required in certain cases, including on any sale of stock that is regularly traded on an established securities market⁹⁵⁰), and 10 percent of the amount realized by the foreign shareholder in the case of certain distributions by a corporation that is or has been a U.S. real property holding corporation ("USRPHC") during the applicable testing period.⁹⁵¹ The withholding is generally 35 percent of the amount of a distribution to a foreign person of net proceeds attributable to the sale of a USRPI from an entity such as a partnership, REIT, or RIC.⁹⁵² The foreign person can request a refund with its U.S. tax return, if appropriate, based on that person's total U.S. effectively connected income and deductions (if any) for the taxable year.

USRPHCs and five-percent public shareholder exception

USRPIs include not only interests in real property located in the United States or the U.S. Virgin Islands, but also stock of a USRPHC, generally defined as any domestic corporation, unless the taxpayer establishes that the fair market value of the corporation's USRPIs was less than 50 percent of the combined fair market value of all its real property interests (U.S. and worldwide) and all its assets used or held for use in a trade or business, at all times during a "testing period," which is the shorter of the duration of the taxpayer's ownership of the stock after June 18, 1980, or the five-year period ending on the date of disposition of the stock.⁹⁵³

Under an exception, even if a corporation is a USRPHC, a shareholder's shares of a class of stock that is regularly traded on an established securities market are not treated as USRPIs if the shareholder holds (applying attribution rules) no more than five percent of that class of stock at any time during the testing period.⁹⁵⁴ Among other things, the relevant attribution rules require attribution between a corporation and a shareholder that owns five percent or more in value of the stock of such corporation.⁹⁵⁵ The attribution rules also attribute stock ownership between spouses and between children, grandchildren, parents, and grandparents.

FIRPTA rules for foreign investment through REITs and RICs

Special FIRPTA rules apply to foreign investment through a "qualified investment entity," which includes any REIT and certain RICs that invest largely in USRPIs (including stock of one or more REITs).⁹⁵⁶

Stock of domestically controlled qualified investment entities not a USRPI

If a qualified investment entity is "domestically controlled" (de fined to mean that less than 50 percent in value of the qualified investment entity has been owned (directly or indirectly) by foreign persons during the relevant testing period⁹⁵⁷), stock of such entity is not a USRPI and a foreign shareholder can sell the stock of such entity without being subject to tax under FIRPTA, even if the stock would otherwise be stock of a USRPHC. Treasury regulations provide that for purposes of determining whether a REIT is domestically controlled, the actual owner of REIT shares is the "person who is required to include in his return the dividends received on the stock."⁹⁵⁸ The IRS has issued a private letter ruling concluding that the term "directly or indirectly" for this purpose does not re quire looking through corporate entities that, in the facts of the ruling, were represented to be fully taxable domestic corporations for U.S. federal income tax purposes "and not otherwise a REIT, RIC, hybrid entity, conduit, disregarded entity, or other flow-through or look-through entity."⁹⁵⁹

FIRPTA applies to qualified investment entity (REIT and certain RIC) distributions attributable to gain from sale or exchange of USRPIs, except for distributions to certain five-percent or smaller shareholders

A distribution by a REIT or other qualified investment entity, to the extent attributable to gain from the entity's sale or exchange of USRPIs, is treated as FIRPTA income.⁹⁶⁰ The FIRPTA character is retained if the distribution occurs from one qualified investment entity to another, through a tier of REITs or RICs.⁹⁶¹ An IRS notice (Notice 2007-55) states that this rule retaining the FIRPTA income character of distributions attributable to the sale of USRPIs applies to any distributions under sections 301, 302, 331, and 332 (i.e., to dividend distributions, distributions treated as sales or exchanges of stock by the investor, and both nonliquidating and liquidating distributions) and that the IRS will issue regulations to that effect.⁹⁶²

There is an exception to this rule in the case of distributions to certain public shareholders. If an investor has owned no more than five percent of a class of stock of a REIT or other qualified invest ment entity that is regularly traded on an established securities market located in the United States during the one-year period ending on the date of the distribution, then amounts attributable to gain from entity sales or exchanges of USRPIs can be distributed to such a shareholder without being subject to FIRPTA tax.⁹⁶³ Such distributions that are dividends are treated as dividends from the qualified investment entity,⁹⁶⁴ and thus generally would be subject to U.S. dividend withholding tax (as reduced under any applicable treaty), but are not treated as income effectively connected with the conduct of a U.S. trade or business. An IRS Chief Counsel advice memorandum concludes that such distributions which are made in complete liquidation of a REIT are not treated as dividends from the qualified investment entity and thus generally would not be subject to U.S. dividend withholding tax (in addition to not being treated as income effectively connected with the conduct of a U.S. trade or business).⁹⁶⁵

In the case of REIT stock only, the provision increases from five percent to 10 percent the maximum stock ownership a shareholder may have held, during the testing period, of a class of stock that is publicly traded, to avoid having that stock be treated as a USRPI on disposition.

The provision likewise increases from five percent to 10 percent the percentage ownership threshold that, if not exceeded, results in treating a distribution to holders of publicly traded REIT stock, attributable to gain from sales of exchanges of USRPIs, as a dividend, rather than as FIRPTA gain.

The attribution rules of section 897(c)(6)(C) retain the present-law rule that requires attribution between a shareholder and a corporation if the shareholder owns more than five percent of a class of stock of the corporation. The attribution rules now apply, however, to the determination of whether a person holds more than 10 percent of a class of publicly traded REIT stock.

The provision also provides that REIT stock held by a qualified shareholder, including stock held indirectly through one or more partnerships, is not a U.S real property interest in the hands of such qualified shareholder, except to the extent that an investor in the qualified shareholder (other than an investor that is a qualified shareholder) holds more than 10 percent of that class of stock of the REIT (determined by application of the constructive ownership rules of section 897(c)(6)(C)). Thus, so long as the "more than 10 percent" rule is not exceeded, a qualified shareholder may own and dispose of any amount of stock of a REIT (including stock of a privately-held, non-domestically controlled REIT that is owned by such qualified shareholder) without the application of FIRPTA.

If an investor in the qualified shareholder (other than an investor that is a qualified shareholder) directly, indirectly, or constructively holds more than 10 percent of such class of REIT stock (an "applicable investor"), then a percentage of the REIT stock held by the qualified shareholder equal to the applicable investor's percent age ownership of the qualified shareholder is treated as a USRPI in the hands of the qualified shareholder and is subject to FIRPTA. In that case, an amount equal to such percentage multiplied by the disposition proceeds and REIT distribution proceeds attributable to underlying USRPI gain is treated as FIRPTA gain in the hands of the qualified shareholder.

The provision is intended to override in certain cases one of the conclusions reached in AM 2008-003. Specifically, the provision contains special rules with respect to certain distributions that are treated as a sale or exchange of REIT stock under section 301(c)(3), 302, or 331 with respect to a qualified shareholder. Any such amounts attributable to an applicable investor are ineligible for the FIRPTA exception for qualified shareholders, and thus are subject to FIRPTA. Any such amounts attributable to other investors are treated as a dividend received from a REIT for purposes of U.S. dividend withholding tax and the application of income tax treaties, notwithstanding their general treatment under the Code.

A qualified shareholder is defined as a foreign person that (i) either is eligible for the benefits of a comprehensive income tax treaty which includes an exchange of information program and whose principal class of interests is listed and regularly traded on one or more recognized stock exchanges (as defined in such comprehensive income tax treaty), or is a foreign partnership that is created or organized under foreign law as a limited partnership in a jurisdiction that has an agreement for the exchange of information with respect to taxes with the United States and has a class of limited partnership units representing greater than 50 percent of the value of all the partnership units that is regularly traded on the NYSE or NASDAQ markets, (ii) is a qualified collective investment vehicle (as defined below), and (iii) maintains records on the identity of each person who, at any time during the foreign person's taxable year, is the direct owner of 5 percent or more of the class of interests or units (as applicable) described in (i), above.

A qualified collective investment vehicle is defined as a foreign person that (i) would be eligible for a reduced rate of withholding under the comprehensive income tax treaty described above, even if such entity holds more than 10 percent of the stock of such REIT,⁹⁶⁶ (ii) is publicly traded, is treated as a partnership under the Code, is a withholding foreign partnership, and would be treated as a USRPHC if it were a domestic corporation, or (iii) is designated as such by the Secretary of the Treasury and is either (a) fiscally transparent within the meaning of section 894, or (b) required to include dividends in its gross income, but is entitled to a deduction for distributions to its investors.

The provision also contains rules with respect to partnership al locations of USRPI gains to applicable investors. If an applicable investor's proportionate share of USRPI gain for the taxable year exceeds such partner's distributive share of USRPI gain for the tax able year then such partner's distributive share of non-USRPI income or gain is recharacterized as USRPI gain for the taxable year in the amount that the distributive share of USRPI gain exceeds the proportionate share of USRPI gain. For purposes of these partnership allocation rules, USRPI gain is defined to comprise the net of gain recognized on disposition of a USRPI, distributions from a REIT that are treated as USRPI gain, and loss from the disposition of USRPIs. An investor's proportionate share of USRPI gain is determined based on the applicable investor's largest proportionate share of income or gain for the taxable year, and if such proportionate amount may vary during the existence of the partnership, such share is the highest share the applicable investor may receive.

Domestically controlled qualified investment entity

The provision redefines the term "domestically controlled qualified investment entity" to provide a number of new rules and presumptions relating to whether a qualified investment entity is domestically controlled. First, a qualified investment entity shall be permitted to presume that holders of less than five percent of a class of stock regularly traded on an established securities market in the United States are U.S. persons throughout the testing period, except to the extent that the qualified investment entity has actual knowledge that such persons are not U.S. persons. Second, any stock in the qualified investment entity held by another qualified investment entity (I) which has issued any class of stock that is regularly traded on an established stock exchange, or (II) which is a RIC that issues redeemable securities (within the meaning of section 2 of the Investment Company Act of 1940) shall be treated as held by a foreign person unless such other qualified investment entity is domestically controlled (as determined under the new rules) in which case such stock shall be treated as held by a U.S. person. Finally, any stock in a qualified investment entity held by any other qualified investment entity not described in (I) or (II) of the preceding sentence shall only be treated as held by a U.S. per son to the extent that the stock of such other qualified investment entity is (or is treated under the new provision as) held by a U.S. person.

Exception for interests held by foreign retirement and pension funds

The provision exempts from the rules of section 897 any USRPI held directly (or indirectly through one or more partnerships) by, or to any distribution received from a real estate investment trust by, a qualified foreign pension fund or by a foreign entity wholly-owned by a qualified foreign pension fund. A qualified foreign pension fund means any trust, corporation, or other organization or arrangement⁹⁶⁷ (A) which is created or organized under the law of a country other than the United States, (B) which is established to provide retirement or pension benefits to participants or beneficiaries that are current or former employees (or persons designated by such employees) of one or more employers in consider-ation for services rendered,⁹⁶⁸ (C) which does not have a single participant or beneficiary with a right to more than five percent of its assets or income, (D) which is subject to government regulation and provides annual information reporting about its beneficiaries to the relevant tax authorities in the country in which it is established or operates, and (E) with respect to which, under the laws of the country in which it is established or operates, (i) contributions to such organization or arrangement that would otherwise be subject to tax under such laws are deductible or excluded from the gross income of such entity or taxed at a reduced rate, or (ii) taxation of any investment income of such organization or arrangement is deferred or such income is taxed at a reduced rate.

The provision also makes conforming changes to section 1445 to eliminate withholding on sales by qualified foreign pension funds (and their wholly-owned foreign subsidiaries) of USRPIs.

The Secretary of the Treasury may provide such regulations as are necessary to carry out the purposes of the provision.

The provision to modify the definition of a domestically controlled qualified investment entity is effective on the date of enactment (December 18, 2015).

The exception for interests held by foreign retirement and pension funds generally applies to dispositions and distributions after the date of enactment (December 18, 2015).

12. Increase in rate of withholding of tax on dispositions of United States real property interests (sec. 324 of the Act and sec. 1445 of the Code)⁹⁶⁹

Treasury regulations⁹⁷³ generally provide that a domestic corporation must, within a reasonable period after receipt of a request from a foreign person holding an interest in it, inform that person whether the interest constitutes a USRPI.⁹⁷⁴ No particular form is required. The statement must be dated and signed by a responsible corporate officer who must verify under penalties of perjury that the statement is correct to his knowledge and belief. If a foreign investor requests such a statement, then the corporation must provide a notice to the IRS that includes the name and taxpayer identification number of the corporation as well as the investor, and indicates whether the interest in question is a USRPI. However, these requirements do not apply to a domestically controlled REIT or to a corporation that has issued any class of stock which is regularly traded on an established securities market at any time during the calendar year. In such cases a corporation may voluntarily choose to comply with the notice requirements that would otherwise have applied.⁹⁷⁵

In addition to these exceptions that might be determined at the entity level, even if a corporation is a USRPHC, its stock is not a USRPI in the hands of the seller if the stock is of a class that is publicly traded and the foreign shareholder disposing of the stock has not owned (applying attribution rules) more than five percent of such class of stock during the relevant period.

13. Interests in RICs and REITs not excluded from definition of United States real property interests (sec. 325 of the Act and sec. 897 of the Code)⁹⁷⁶

14. Dividends derived from RICs and REITs ineligible for deduction for United States source portion of dividends from certain foreign corporations (sec. 326 of the Act and sec. 245 of the Code)⁹⁷⁸

Dividends from REITs are not eligible for the corporate dividends received deduction.⁹⁸⁰ Dividends from a RIC are eligible only to the extent attributable to dividends received by the RIC from certain other corporations, and are treated as dividends from a corporation that is not 20-percent owned.⁹⁸¹

Dividends received from a foreign corporation are not generally eligible for the dividends-received deduction. However, section 245 provides that if a U.S. corporation is a 10-percent shareholder of a foreign corporation, the U.S. corporation is generally entitled to a dividends-received deduction for the portion of dividends received that are attributable to the post-1986 undistributed U.S. earnings of the foreign corporation. The post-1986 undistributed U.S. earnings are measured by reference to earnings of the foreign corporation effectively connected with the conduct of a trade or business within the United States, or received by the foreign corporation from an 80-percent-owned U.S. corporation.⁹⁸² A 2013 IRS chief counsel advice memorandum advised that dividends received by a 10-percent U.S. corporate shareholder from a foreign corporation controlled by the shareholder are not eligible for the dividends-received deduction if the dividends were attributable to interest income of an 80-percent owned RIC.⁹⁸³ Treasury regulations section 1.246-1 states that the deductions provided in sections "243 . . . 244 . . . and 245 (relating to dividends received from certain foreign corporations)" are not allowable with respect to any dividend received from certain entities, one of which is a REIT.

An organization qualifying for tax-exempt status under section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended (the "Code") is further classified as either a public charity or a private foundation. An organization may qualify as a public charity in several ways.⁹⁸⁵ Certain organizations are classified as public charities per se, regardless of their sources of support. These include churches, certain schools, hospitals and other medical organizations (including medical research organizations), certain organizations providing assistance to colleges and universities, and governmental units.⁹⁸⁶ Other organizations qualify as public charities because they are broadly publicly supported or support specific public charities. First, a charity may qualify as publicly supported if at least one-third of its total support is from gifts, grants or other contributions from governmental units or the general public.⁹⁸⁷ Alternatively, it may qualify as publicly supported if it receives more than one-third of its total support from a combination of gifts, grants, and contributions from governmental units and the public plus revenue arising from activities related to its exempt purposes (e.g., fee for service income). In addition, this category of public charity must not rely excessively on endowment income as a source of support.⁹⁸⁸ A supporting organization, i.e., an organization that provides support to another section 501(c)(3) entity that is not a private foundation and meets certain other requirements of the Code, also is classified as a public charity.⁹⁸⁹

A section 501(c)(3) organization that does not fit within any of the above categories is a private foundation. In general, private foundations receive funding from a limited number of sources (e.g., an individual, a family, or a corporation).

The deduction for charitable contributions to private foundations is in some instances less generous than the deduction for charitable contributions to public charities. For example, an individual taxpayer who makes a cash charitable contribution may deduct the contribution up to 50 percent of her contribution base (generally, adjusted gross income, with modifications) if the contribution is made to a public charity, but only up to 30 percent of her contribution base if the contribution is made to a non-operating private foundation.⁹⁹⁰

In addition, private foundations are subject to a number of operational rules and restrictions that do not apply to public charities, as well as a tax on their net investment income.⁹⁹¹

Medical research organizations

A medical research organization is treated as a public charity per se, regardless of its sources of financial support, and charitable contributions to a medical research organization may qualify for the more preferential 50-percent limitation.⁹⁹²

To qualify as a medical research organization, an organization's principal purpose or functions must be medical research, and it must be directly engaged in the continuous active conduct of medical research in conjunction with a hospital.⁹⁹³ For a contribution to a medical research organization to qualify for the more preferential 50-percent limitation of section 170(b)(1)(A), during the calendar year in which the contribution is made, the organization must be committed to spend such contribution for the active conduct of medical research before January 1 of the fifth calendar year beginning after the date such contribution is made.⁹⁹⁴

Lobbying activities of section 501(c)(3) organizations

Charitable organizations face limits on the amount of permissible lobbying activity. An organization does not qualify for tax-exempt status as a charitable organization unless "no substantial part" of its activities constitutes "carrying on propaganda, or otherwise attempting, to influence legislation" (commonly referred to as "lobbying").⁹⁹⁵ Public charities may engage in limited lobbying activities, provided that such activities are not substantial, without losing their tax-exempt status and generally without being subject to tax. In contrast, private foundations are subject to a restriction that lobbying activities, even if insubstantial, may result in the foundation being subject to penalty excise taxes.⁹⁹⁶

For purposes of determining whether lobbying activities are a substantial part of a public charity's overall functions, a public charity may choose between two standards, the "substantial part" test or the "expenditure" test.⁹⁹⁷ The substantial part test derives from the statutory language quoted above and uses a facts and circumstances approach to measure the permissible level of lobbying activities. The expenditure test sets specific dollar limits, calculated as a percentage of a charity's total exempt purpose expenditures, on the amount a charity may spend to influence legislation.⁹⁹⁸

To qualify, an agricultural research organization must be engaged in the continuous active conduct of agricultural research (as defined in section 1404 of the Agricultural Research, Extension, and Teaching Policy Act of 1977) in conjunction with a land-grant college or university (as defined in such section) or a non-land grant college of agriculture (as defined in such section). In addition, for a contribution to an agricultural research organization to qualify for the 50 percent limitation, during the calendar year in which a contribution is made to the organization, the organization must be committed to spend the contribution for such research before January 1 of the fifth calendar year which begins after the date of the contribution. It is intended that the provision be interpreted in like manner to and consistent with the rules applicable to medical research organizations.

An agricultural research organization is permitted to use the expenditure test of section 501(h) for purposes of determining whether a substantial part of its activities consist of carrying on propaganda, or otherwise attempting, to influence legislation (i.e., lobbying).

2. Remove bonding requirements for certain taxpayers subject to Federal excise taxes on distilled spirits, wine, and beer (sec. 332 of the Act and secs. 5061(d), 5173(a), 5351, 5401 and 5551 of the Code)

Certain removals or transfers are exempt from tax. For example, distilled spirits, wine, and beer may be removed either free of tax or without immediate payment of tax for certain uses,¹⁰⁰⁶ such as for export or an industrial use. Bulk distilled spirits, as well as wine and beer, may be transferred without payment of the tax between bonded premises under certain conditions specified in the regulations; ¹⁰⁰⁷ such bulk products, if imported, may be transferred without payment of the tax to domestic bonded premises under certain conditions.¹⁰⁰⁸ The tax liability accompanies such a product that is transferred in bond.

Before commencing operations, a distiller must register, a winery must qualify, and a brewery must file a notice with the Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau (TTB) and receive approval to operate.¹⁰⁰⁹ Various types of bonds (including operations bonds and tax deferral or withdrawal bonds) are required for any person operating a distilled spirits plant, winery, or brewery.¹⁰¹⁰ The bond amounts are generally set by regulations and determined based on the underlying excise tax liability.¹⁰¹¹

Additionally, the provision allows any distilled spirits, wine, or beer taxpayer with a reasonably expected alcohol excise tax liability of not more than $1,000 per year to file and pay such taxes annually rather than on a quarterly basis.

3. Modification to alternative tax for certain small insurance companies (sec. 333 of the Act and sec. 831(b) of the Code)¹⁰¹²

In lieu of the tax otherwise applicable, certain property and casualty insurance companies may elect to be taxed only on taxable investment income under section 831(b). The election is available to mutual and stock companies with net written premiums or direct written premiums (whichever is greater) that do not exceed $1,200,000.

For purposes of determining whether a company meets this dollar limit, the company is treated as receiving during the taxable year amounts of net or direct written premiums that are received during that year by all other companies that are members of the same controlled group as the company. A controlled group means any controlled group of corporations as defined in section 1563(a), but applying a "more than 50 percent" threshold in lieu of the "at least 80 percent" threshold in the requirement that one of the corporations own at least 80 percent of the total combined voting power of all classes of stock entitled to vote or at least 80 percent of the total value of share of all classes of stock of each of the corporations; without treating insurance companies as a separate controlled group; and without treating life insurance companies as excluded members.¹⁰¹³

Increase and indexing of dollar limits

The provision increases the amount of the limit on net written premiums or direct written premiums (whichever is greater) from $1,200,000 to $2,200,000 and indexes this amount for inflation starting in 2016. The base year for calculating the inflation adjustment is 2013. If the amount, as adjusted, is not a multiple of $50,000, it is rounded to the next lowest multiple of $50,000.

Diversification requirements

The provision adds diversification requirements to the eligibility rules. A company can meet these in one of two ways.

Risk diversification test

An insurance company meets the diversification requirement if no more than 20 percent of the net written premiums (or, if greater, direct written premiums) of the company for the taxable year is attributable to any one policyholder. In determining the attribution of premiums to any policyholder, all policyholders that are related¹⁰¹⁴ or are members of the same controlled group¹⁰¹⁵ are treated as one policyholder.

Relatedness test

If the company does not meet this 20-percent requirement, an alternative diversification requirement applies for the company to be eligible to elect 831(b) treatment.¹⁰¹⁶ Under this requirement, no person who holds (directly or indirectly) an interest in the company is a specified holder who holds (directly or indirectly) aggregate interests in the company that constitute a percentage of the entire interests in the company that is more than a de minimis percentage higher than the percentage of interests in the specified assets with respect to the company held (directly or indirectly) by the specified holder. Except as otherwise provided in regulations or other guidance, two percentage points or less is treated as de minimis. An indirect interest for this purpose includes any interest held through a trust, estate, partnership, or corporation.

A specified holder means, with respect to an insurance company, any individual who holds (directly or indirectly) an interest in the insurance company and who is a spouse or lineal descendant (including by adoption) of an individual who holds an interest (directly or indirectly) in the specified assets with respect to the insurance company.

The specified assets with respect to an insurance company mean the trades or businesses, rights, or assets with respect to which the net written premiums (or direct written premiums) of the company are paid.

For example, assume that in 2017, a captive insurance company does not meet the requirement that no more than 20 percent of its net (or direct) written premiums is attributable to any one policyholder. The captive has one policyholder, Business, certain of whose property and liability risks the captive covers (the specified assets), and Business pays the captive $2 million in premiums in 2017. Business is owned 70 percent by Father and 30 percent by Son. The captive is owned 100 percent by Son (whether directly, or through a trust, estate, partnership, or corporation). Son is Father's lineal descendant. Son, a specified holder, has a non-de minimis percentage greater interest in the captive (100 percent) than in the specified assets with respect to the captive (30 percent). Therefore, the captive is not eligible to elect section 831(b) treatment.

If, by contrast, all the facts were the same except that Son owned 30 percent and Father owned 70 percent of the captive, Son would not have a non-de minimis percentage greater interest in the captive (30 percent) than in the specified assets with respect to the captive (30 percent). The captive would meet the diversification requirement for eligibility to elect section 831(b) treatment. The same result would occur if Son owned less than 30 percent of the captive (and Father more than 70 percent), and the other facts remained unchanged.

Any insurance company for which an 831(b) election is in effect for a taxable year must report information required by the Secretary relating to the diversification requirements imposed under the provision.

The provision also makes a technical amendment striking an unnecessary redundant parenthetical reference to interinsurers and reciprocal underwriters.

4. Treatment of timber gain (sec. 334 of the Act and sec. 1201 of the Code)

Under present law, if a taxpayer cuts standing timber, the taxpayer may elect to treat the cutting as a sale or exchange eligible for capital gains treatment (sec. 631(a)). The fair market value of the timber on the first day of the taxable year in which the timber is cut is used to determine the gain attributable to such cutting. Such fair market value is thereafter considered the taxpayer's cost of the cut timber for all purposes, such as to determine the taxpayer's income from later sales of the timber or timber products. Also, if a taxpayer disposes of the timber with a retained economic interest or makes an outright sale of the timber, the gain is eligible for capital gain treatment (sec. 631(b)). This treatment under either section 631(a) or (b) requires that the taxpayer has owned the timber or held the contract right for a period of more than one year.

The maximum regular rate of tax on the net capital gain of an individual is 20 percent.¹⁰¹⁷ Certain gains are subject to an additional 3.8-percent tax.¹⁰¹⁸

The net capital gain of a corporation is taxed at the same rates as ordinary income, up to a maximum rate of 35 percent.¹⁰¹⁹

Qualified timber gain means the net gain described in section 631(a) and (b) for the taxable year, determined by taking into account only trees held more than 15 years.

5. Modification of definition of hard cider (sec. 335 of the Act and sec. 5041 of the Code)¹⁰²⁰

Distilled spirits, wine, and beer produced or imported into the United States are taxed at the following rates per specified volumetric measure:

                  Item                              Current Tax Rate

Other wines made from apples, apple concentrate or other fruit products are taxed at the rates applicable in accordance with the alcohol and carbon dioxide content of the wine.

6. Church plan clarification (sec. 336 of the Act and sec. 414 of the Code)

Tax-favored employer-sponsored retirement plans include qualified retirement plans and section 403(b) plans.¹⁰³⁰ A qualified retirement plan may be maintained by any type of employer. Section 403(b) plans may be maintained only by (1) certain tax-exempt organizations,¹⁰³¹ and (2) educational institutions of State or local governments (i.e., public schools, including colleges and universities).

Qualified retirement plans and section 403(b) plans are subject to various requirements to receive tax-favored treatment, such as nondiscrimination requirements, vesting requirements, and limits on contributions and benefits, discussed below. In the case of plans subject to the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 ("ERISA"), requirements similar to some of the requirements under the Code, such as vesting requirements, apply also under ERISA.

Under the Code, these plans generally are prohibited from discriminating in favor of highly compensated employees ¹⁰³² with respect to contributions and benefits under the plan ("general nondiscrimination rule") and with respect to the group of employees eligible to participate in a plan ("minimum coverage rule").¹⁰³³

Special rules for plans maintained by churches or church-related organizations

Special rules apply with respect to qualified retirement plans that are church plans and to section 403(b) plans that are maintained by churches or qualified church-controlled organizations.

A qualified retirement plan that is a church plan is excepted from various requirements applicable to qualified plans generally under the Code unless an election is made for the plan to be subject to these requirements.¹⁰³⁴ A church plan with respect to which this election is not made is generally referred to as a "non-electing church plan."¹⁰³⁵ A non-electing church plan is also exempt from ERISA.¹⁰³⁶

For this purpose, a church plan generally is a plan established and maintained for its employees (or their beneficiaries) by a church or by a convention or association of churches that is tax-exempt.¹⁰³⁷ For this purpose, employees of a tax-exempt organization that is controlled by or associated with a church or a convention or association of churches are treated as employed by a church or convention or association of churches. Associated with a church or a convention or association of churches for this purpose means sharing common religious bonds and convictions. Finally, a church plan also includes a plan maintained by an organization that is controlled by or associated with a church or convention or association of churches and has as its principal purpose or function the administration or funding of a plan or program for providing retirement or welfare benefits, or both, for the employees of the church or convention or association of churches (a "church plan organization").

A section 403(b) plan maintained by a church or qualified church-controlled organization is not subject to the nondiscrimination requirements otherwise applicable to section 403(b) plans.¹⁰³⁸ For this purpose, church means a church, a convention or association of churches, or an elementary or secondary school that is controlled, operated, or principally supported by a church or by a convention or association of churches and includes a qualified church controlled organization.¹⁰³⁹ A qualified church-controlled organization is any church-controlled tax-exempt organization¹⁰⁴⁰ other than an organization that (1) offers goods, services, or facilities for sale, other than on an incidental basis, to the general public, other than goods, services, or facilities that are sold at a nominal charge substantially less than the cost of providing the goods, services, or facilities; and (2) normally receives more than 25 percent of its support from either governmental sources, or receipts from admissions, sales of merchandise, performance of services, or furnishing of facilities, in activities that are not unrelated trades or businesses, or from both. Church controlled organizations that are not qualified church-controlled organizations are generally referred to as "nonqualified church-controlled organizations."

Aggregation rules for groups under common control

General rule

In general, in applying the requirements for tax-favored treatment, employees of employers (including corporations and other entities) that are members of a group under common control are treated as employed by a single employer (referred to as aggregation rules).¹⁰⁴¹ For example, in applying the nondiscrimination requirements, the employees of all the members of a group, and the benefits provided under plans maintained by any member of the group, are generally taken into account. In the case of taxable entities, common control is generally based on the percentage of equity ownership with a general threshold of 80 percent ownership. Other tests apply for entities that do not involve ownership.

Rules for tax-exempt organizations (other than churches)

Treasury regulations provide rules for determining whether tax-exempt organizations are under common control.¹⁰⁴²

Under one rule, common control exists between an exempt organization and another organization if at least 80 percent of the directors or trustees of one organization are either representatives of, or directly or indirectly controlled by, the other organization. A trustee or director is treated as a representative of another exempt organization if he or she also is a trustee, director, agent, or employee of the other exempt organization. A trustee or director is controlled by another organization if the other organization has the general power to remove the trustee or director and designate a new trustee or director. Whether a person has the power to remove or designate a trustee or director is based on facts and circumstances.

Under a permissive aggregation rule, exempt organizations that maintain a plan that covers one or more employees from each organization may treat themselves as under common control (and, thus, as a single employer) if each of the organizations regularly coordinates their day-to-day exempt activities.¹⁰⁴³ The regulations also permit the IRS, in published guidance, to permit other types of combinations of entities that include exempt organizations to elect to be treated as under common control for one or more specified purposes if (1) there are substantial business reasons for maintaining each entity in a separate trust, corporation, or other form, and (2) the treatment would be consistent with the anti-abuse standards described below.

The regulations provide an anti-abuse rule under which the IRS may treat an entity as under common control with an exempt organization in certain cases. These include any case in which the IRS determines that the structure of one or more exempt organizations (which may include an exempt organization and a taxable entity) or the positions taken by the organizations have the effect of avoiding or evading any requirements for tax-favored retirement plans (or any other requirement for purposes of which the common control rules apply).¹⁰⁴⁴

Rules for churches and qualified church-controlled organizations

The regulations for determining common control of tax-exempt organizations generally do not apply to churches or qualified church-controlled organizations, as defined for purposes of the exception to the section 403(b) nondiscrimination rules.¹⁰⁴⁵ The regulations do, however, provide a rule for permissive disaggregation between churches and qualified church-controlled organizations and other entities. In the case of a church plan (as defined above) to which contributions are made by two or more entities that are common law employers, any employer may apply the general aggregation rules for tax-exempt entities (as described above) to entities that are not a church or qualified church-controlled organization separately from entities that are churches or qualified church-controlled organizations. For example, in the case of a group of entities consisting of a church, a secondary school (which is a qualified church-controlled organization), and several nursing homes each of which receives more than 25 percent of its support from fees paid by residents (so that none of them is a qualified church-controlled organization), the nursing homes may treat themselves as being under common control with each other, but not as being under common control with the church and the school, even though the nursing homes would be under common control with the school and the church under the general aggregation rules for tax-exempt entities.

The preamble to the Treasury regulations also indicates that churches and qualified church-controlled organizations maintaining section 403(b) plans can continue to rely on previous guidance ¹⁰⁴⁶ that provides a safe harbor standard for determining the members of a controlled group.¹⁰⁴⁷ Under this safe harbor, a controlled group includes each entity of which at least 80 percent of the directors, trustees or other individual members of the entity's governing body are either representatives of or directly or indirectly control, or are controlled by, the contributing employer. In addition, under the safe harbor, an entity is included in the same controlled group as the contributing employer if the entity provides directly or indirectly at least 80 percent of the contributing employer's operating funds and there is a degree of common management or supervision between the entities. A degree of common management or supervision exists if the entity providing the funds has the power to appoint or nominate officers, senior management or members of the board of directors (or other governing board) of the entity receiving the funds. A degree of common management or supervision also exists if the entity providing the funds is involved in the day-to-day operations of the entity.

Limits on contributions and benefits

Contributions or benefits under a qualified retirement plan are subject to limits. The limit that applies is generally based on whether the plan is a defined contribution plan or a defined benefit plan.¹⁰⁴⁸

Total contributions to a defined contribution plan on behalf of an employee (other than catch-up contributions for an employee age 50 or older) for a year cannot exceed the lesser of $53,000 (for 2015) and the employee's compensation.¹⁰⁴⁹ Contributions made by an employer to more than one plan are aggregated for purposes of this limit, and employee contributions to a defined benefit plan, if any, are also taken into account in applying the limit.

An employee's annual benefit under all defined benefit plans of an employer generally must be limited to the lesser of $210,000 (for 2015) and the employee's average compensation for the three years resulting in the highest average.¹⁰⁵⁰ The dollar limit applies to benefits commencing between age 62 and age 65 in the form of a straight life annuity for the life of the employee. If benefits under a plan are paid in a form other than a straight life annuity commencing between age 62 and age 65, the benefits payable under the other form (including any benefit subsidies) generally cannot exceed the dollar limit when actuarially converted to a straight life annuity commencing at age 62.¹⁰⁵¹

Section 403(b) plans are generally defined contribution plans and are subject to the limits on contributions to defined contribution plans.¹⁰⁵² However, under the Tax Equity and Fiscal Responsibility Act of 1982, certain defined benefit arrangements established by church-related organizations and in effect on September 3, 1982, are treated as section 403(b) plans ("section 403(b) defined benefit plans").¹⁰⁵³ Under Treasury regulations, the present value of an employee's annual accrual under a section 403(b) defined benefit plan is subject to the limit on contributions to a defined contribution plan, and the benefits under the plan are subject to the limit on benefits under a defined benefit plan.¹⁰⁵⁴ Thus, the plan is subject to both limits.

Automatic enrollment

Qualified defined contribution plans and section 403(b) plans may include a feature under which an employee may elect between the receipt of cash compensation and plan contributions, referred to as elective deferrals.¹⁰⁵⁵ Plans are commonly designed so that an employee will receive cash compensation unless the employee affirmatively elects to make elective deferrals. Alternatively, some plans provide for automatic enrollment, a design under which elective deferrals are made at a specified rate for an employee, instead of cash compensation, unless the employee elects not to make deferrals or to make deferrals at a different rate. The Code provides various rules to accommodate automatic enrollment arrangements.¹⁰⁵⁶

In the case of a plan subject to ERISA, ERISA generally preempts State laws relating to employee benefit plans.¹⁰⁵⁷ ERISA also expressly exempts any State laws that would impede a plan from providing an automatic enrollment arrangement, as described in the ERISA preemption provision.¹⁰⁵⁸ However, ERISA preemption does not apply with respect to plans that are exempt from ERISA, including nonelecting church plans.

Vesting requirements and transfers between plans

In general, employer-provided benefits under a qualified retirement plan are subject to minimum vesting requirements, which depend on whether the plan is a defined contribution plan or a defined benefit plan.¹⁰⁵⁹ In addition, under either type of plan, a participant must be fully vested at all times in benefits attributable to his or her own contributions. However, a nonelecting church plan is exempt from these vesting requirements. In contrast, contributions to a section 403(b) plan, including a section 403(b) that is a church plan, must be fully vested at all times.¹⁰⁶⁰

A distribution to a participant from a qualified retirement plan or a section 403(b) plan generally may be rolled over to the other type of plan, including by a direct transfer to the recipient plan. In addition, in some cases, benefits and assets from one type of plan may be transferred to another plan of the same type or two plans of the same type may be merged into a single plan. However, transfers of benefits and assets between a qualified retirement plan and a section 403(b) plan are not permitted through a trustee-to-trustee transfer (other than a rollover of a distribution) or through a merger of two plans.¹⁰⁶¹

Group trusts

Assets of a tax-favored retirement plan generally must be set aside in a trust or other fund and used for the exclusive benefit of participants and beneficiaries. IRS guidance allows the assets of different qualified retirement plans, including plans maintained by unrelated employers, to be pooled and held by a "group trust," thus enabling employers of various sizes to benefit from economies of scale for administrative and investment purposes.¹⁰⁶² In addition to qualified retirement plan assets, a group trust may also hold assets associated with certain other tax-favored retirement arrangements, including section 403(b) plans. However, a group trust may not hold other assets, such as the assets of employers sponsoring the plans.

The assets of a section 403(b) plan generally must be invested in annuity contracts or stock of regulated investment companies (that is, mutual funds).¹⁰⁶³ Under a special rule, certain defined contribution arrangements, referred to as retirement income accounts, established or maintained by a church, or a convention or association of churches, including a church plan organization (as described above), are treated as annuity contracts and thus are treated as section 403(b) plans, the assets of which may be invested in a group trust.¹⁰⁶⁴ The assets of retirement income accounts may also be commingled in a common fund with assets of a church itself (that is, assets that are not retirement plan assets) that are devoted exclusively to church purposes.¹⁰⁶⁵ However, unless permitted by the IRS, the assets of a church plan sponsor may not be combined with other types of retirement plan assets, such as in a group trust.¹⁰⁶⁶

General rule

For purposes of applying the controlled group rules with respect to employers that are organizations eligible to maintain church plans, the general rule under the provision is that one organization is not aggregated with another organization and treated as a single employer unless two conditions are satisfied. First, one of the organizations provides directly or indirectly at least 80 percent of the operating funds for the other organization during the preceding taxable year of the recipient organization, and, second, there is a degree of common management or supervision between the organizations, such that the organization providing the operating funds is directly involved in the day-to-day operations of the other organization.

Nonqualified church-controlled organizations

Notwithstanding the general rule, an organization that is a nonqualified church-controlled organization ("first organization") is aggregated with one or more other nonqualified church-controlled organizations or an organization that is not a tax-exempt organization ("other organization") and thus treated as a single employer if at least 80 percent of the directors or trustees of the other organization or organizations are either representatives of, or directly or indirectly controlled by, the first organization.

Permissive aggregation among church-related organizations

With respect to organizations associated with a church or convention or association of churches and eligible to maintain a church plan, an election may be made to treat the organizations as a single employer even if they would not otherwise be aggregated. The election must be made by the church or convention or association of churches with which such organizations are associated, or by an organization designated by the church or convention or association of churches. The election, once made, applies to all succeeding plan years unless revoked with notice provided to the Secretary of the Treasury ("Secretary") in such manner as the Secretary prescribes.

Permissive disaggregation of church-related organizations

For purposes of applying the general rule above, in the case of a church plan, an employer may elect to treat entities that are churches or qualified church-controlled organizations separately from other entities, regardless of whether the entities maintain separate church plans. The election, once made, applies to all succeeding plan years unless revoked with notice provided to the Secretary in such manner as the Secretary prescribes.

Anti-abuse rule

Under the provision, the anti-abuse rule in the regulations continues to apply for purposes of the rules for determining whether entities are under common control.

Contribution and benefit limits for section 403(b) defined benefit plans

Under the provision, a section 403(b) defined benefit plan is subject to the limit on benefits under a defined benefit plan and is not subject to the limit on contributions to a defined contribution plan.

Automatic enrollment by church plans

The provision preempts any State law relating to wage, salary or payroll payment, collection, deduction, garnishment, assignment, or withholding that would directly or indirectly prohibit or restrict the inclusion of an automatic contribution arrangement in a church plan. For this purpose, an automatic contribution arrangement is an arrangement under which a plan participant (1) may elect to have the plan sponsor or the employer make payments as contributions under the plan on behalf of the participant, or to the participant directly in cash, and (2) is treated as having elected to have the plan sponsor or the employer make contributions equal to a uniform percentage of compensation provided under the plan until the participant specifically elects not to have contributions made or to have contributions made at a different percentage.

Within a reasonable period before the first day of each plan year, the plan sponsor, plan administrator or employer maintaining the arrangement must provide each participant with notice of the participant's rights and obligations under the arrangement. The notice must include an explanation of (1) the participant's right under the arrangement not to have contributions made on the participant's behalf (or to elect to have contributions made at a different percentage) and (2) how contributions made under the arrangement will be invested in the absence of any investment election by the participant. The notice must be sufficiently accurate and comprehensive to apprise the participant of such rights and obligations and must be written in a manner calculated to be understood by the average participant to whom the arrangement applies.

The participant must have a reasonable period of time, after receipt of the explanation described above and before the first contribution is made, to make an election not to have contributions made or to have contributions made at a different percentage. If a participant has not made an affirmative investment election, contributions made under the arrangement must be invested in a default investment selected with the care, skill, prudence, and diligence that a prudent person selecting an investment option would use.

Allow certain plan transfers and mergers

Under the provision, if a qualified retirement plan that is a church plan and a section 403(b) plan are both maintained by the same church or convention or association of churches, and two requirements are satisfied, a transfer of all or a portion of a participant's or beneficiary's accrued benefit from one plan to the other, or a merger of the two plans, is permitted. The two requirements are that (1) the total accrued benefit of each participant or beneficiary immediately after the transfer or merger be equal to or greater than the participant's or beneficiary's total accrued benefit immediately before the transfer or merger, and (2) the total accrued benefit be nonforfeitable (i.e., 100 percent vested) after the transfer or merger and at all times thereafter. The permitted transfer or merger does not result in any income inclusion by the participant or beneficiary and does not affect the tax-favored status of the qualified retirement plan or section 403(b) plan.

Investment of church plan and church assets in group trusts

The provision allows the investment in a group trust of the assets of a church plan, including a qualified retirement plan and a retirement income account, as well as the assets of a church plan organization with respect to a church plan or retirement income account and any other assets permitted to be commingled for investment purposes with the assets of a church plan, retirement income account, or a church plan organization, without adversely affecting the tax status of the group trust, the church plan, the retirement income account, the church plan organization, or any other plan or trust that invests in the group trust.

The provision relating to automatic enrollment is effective on the date of enactment.

The provision relating to plan transfers and mergers applies to transfers or mergers occurring after the date of enactment.

The provision relating to investments in group trusts applies to investments made after the date of enactment.

Code section 179D provides an election under which a taxpayer may take an immediate deduction equal to energy-efficient commercial building property expenditures made by the taxpayer. Energy-efficient commercial building property is defined as property (1) which is installed on or in any building located in the United States that is within the scope of Standard 90.1-2001 of the American Society of Heating, Refrigerating, and Air Conditioning Engineers and the Illuminating Engineering Society of North America ("ASHRAE/IESNA"), (2) which is installed as part of (i) the interior lighting systems, (ii) the heating, cooling, ventilation, and hot water systems, or (iii) the building envelope, and (3) which is certified as being installed as part of a plan designed to reduce the total annual energy and power costs with respect to the interior lighting systems, heating, cooling, ventilation, and hot water systems of the building by 50 percent or more in comparison to a reference building which meets the minimum requirements of Standard 90.1-2001 (as in effect on April 2, 2003). The deduction is limited to an amount equal to $1.80 per square foot of the property for which such expenditures are made. The deduction is allowed in the year in which the property is placed in service.

Certain certification requirements must be met in order to qualify for the deduction. The Secretary, in consultation with the Secretary of Energy, will promulgate regulations that describe methods of calculating and verifying energy and power costs using qualified computer software based on the provisions of the 2005 California Nonresidential Alternative Calculation Method Approval Manual or, in the case of residential property, the 2005 California Residential Alternative Calculation Method Approval Manual.

The Secretary is granted authority to prescribe procedures for the inspection and testing for compliance of buildings that are comparable, given the difference between commercial and residential buildings, to the requirements in the Mortgage Industry National Accreditation Procedures for Home Energy Rating Systems.¹⁰⁶⁸ Individuals qualified to determine compliance shall only be those recognized by one or more organizations certified by the Secretary for such purposes.

For energy-efficient commercial building property expenditures made by a public entity, such as public schools, the deduction may be allocated to the person primarily responsible for designing the property in lieu of the public entity.

If a deduction is allowed under this section, the basis of the property is reduced by the amount of the deduction.

The deduction is effective for property placed in service prior to January 1, 2015.

Partial allowance of deduction

System-specific deductions

In the case of a building that does not meet the overall building requirement of 50-percent energy savings, a partial deduction is allowed with respect to each separate building system that comprises energy efficient property and which is certified by a qualified professional as meeting or exceeding the applicable system-specific savings targets established by the Secretary. The applicable system-specific savings targets to be established by the Secretary are those that would result in a total annual energy savings with respect to the whole building of 50 percent, if each of the separate systems met the system specific target. The separate building systems are (1) the interior lighting system, (2) the heating, cooling, ventilation and hot water systems, and (3) the building envelope. The maximum allowable deduction is $0.60 per square foot for each separate system.

Interim rules for lighting systems

In general, in the case of system-specific partial deductions, no deduction is allowed until the Secretary establishes system-specific targets.¹⁰⁶⁹ However, in the case of lighting system retrofits, until such time as the Secretary issues final regulations, the system-specific energy savings target for the lighting system is deemed to be met by a reduction in lighting power density of 40 percent (50 percent in the case of a warehouse) of the minimum requirements in Table 9.3.1.1 or Table 9.3.1.2 of ASHRAE/IESNA Standard 90.1-2001. Also, in the case of a lighting system that reduces lighting power density by 25 percent, a partial deduction of 30 cents per square foot is allowed. A prorated partial deduction is allowed in the case of a lighting system that reduces lighting power density between 25 percent and 40 percent. Certain lighting level and lighting control requirements must also be met in order to qualify for the partial lighting deductions under the interim rule.

2. Excise tax equivalency for liquefied petroleum gas and liquefied natural gas (sec. 342 of the Act and sec. 6426 of the Code)¹⁰⁷⁰

The alternative fuel and alternative fuel excise tax credits are allowable as credits against the fuel excise taxes imposed by sections 4081 and 4041. Fuel excise taxes are imposed on taxable fuel (gasoline, diesel fuel or kerosene) under section 4081. In general, these fuels are taxed when removed from a refinery, terminal rack, upon entry into the United States, or upon sale to an unregistered person. A backup tax under section 4041 is imposed on previously untaxed fuel and alternative fuel used or sold for use as fuel in a motor vehicle or motorboat to the supply tank of a highway vehicle. In general, the rates of tax are 18.3 cents per gallon (or in the case of compressed natural gas 18.3 cents per gasoline gallon equivalent), and in the case of liquefied natural gas, and liquid fuel derived from coal or biomass, 24.3 cents per gallon.

For fuel sold or used after December 31, 2015, liquefied petroleum gas will be taxed at 18.3 cents per energy equivalent of a gallon of gasoline (defined as 5.75 pounds of liquefied petroleum gas); liquefied natural gas will be taxed at 24.3 cents per energy equivalent of a gallon of diesel (defined as 6.06 pounds of liquefied natural gas); and compressed natural gas will be taxed at 18.3 cents per energy equivalent of a gallon of gasoline (defined as 5.66 pounds of compressed natural gas.

Excise tax credits and payments

The alternative fuel and alternative fuel excise tax credit provides a 50 cents per gallon credit for specific alternative fuels. Nonliquid alternative fuels receive a credit of 50 cents per gasoline gallon equivalent (defined as the amount of such fuel having a Btu content of 128,700 (higher heating value). Liquefied natural gas and liquefied petroleum gas are afforded a credit of 50 cents per gallon. To the extent the alternative fuel credit exceeds tax, it is refundable as a payment under section 6427(e)(2). The alternative fuel mixture credit is not eligible for the payment incentive.

3. Exclusion from gross income of certain clean coal power grants (sec. 343 of the Act)¹⁰⁷¹

Corporate taxpayers may be eligible to exclude such financial assistance from gross income as a contribution of capital under section 118 of the Code. The basis of any property acquired by reason of such a contribution of capital must be reduced by the amount of the contribution. This exclusion is not available to non-corporate taxpayers.

Under the provision, eligible non-corporate recipients are defined as (1) any recipient (other than a corporation) of any grant, award, or allowance made pursuant to Section 402 of the Energy Policy Act of 2005 that (2) makes the upfront 1.18-percent payment, where (3) the grant, award, or allowance would have been excludable from income by reason of Code section 118 if the taxpayer had been a corporation. In the case of a partnership, the eligible non-corporate recipients are the partners.

4. Clarification of valuation rule for early termination of certain charitable remainder unitrusts (sec. 344 of the Act and sec. 664(e) of the Code)

A charitable remainder trust may be structured as a charitable remainder annuity trust ("CRAT") or a charitable remainder unit trust ("CRUT"). A CRAT is a trust that is required to pay, at least annually, a fixed dollar amount of at least five percent of the initial value of the trust to a noncharity for the life of an individual or for a period of 20 years or less, with the remainder passing to charity.¹⁰⁷² A CRUT is a trust that generally is required to pay, at least annually, a fixed percentage of at least five percent of the fair market value of the trust's assets determined at least annually to a noncharity (the income beneficiary) for the life of an individual or for a period 20 years or less, with the remainder passing to charity.¹⁰⁷³

The Code provides two exceptions under which the trustee of a CRUT may pay the income beneficiary an amount different from the fixed percentage of the value of the trust's assets, as described above. First, in a net income only CRUT ("NICRUT"), the trustee pays the income beneficiary the lesser of the trust income for the year or the fixed percentage of the value of the trust assets, described above.¹⁰⁷⁴ Stated differently, the distribution that otherwise would be made to the income beneficiary is limited by the trust income. Second, in a net income CRUT with a make-up feature ("NIMCRUT"), the trustee makes make-up distributions when a CRUT has distributed less than the fixed percentage of the value of the trust assets in a prior year by reason of the net income limit.¹⁰⁷⁵

A trust does not qualify as a CRAT if the annuity for a year is greater than 50 percent of the initial fair market value of the trust's assets. A trust does not qualify as a CRUT if the percentage of assets that are required to be distributed at least annually is greater than 50 percent. A trust does not qualify as a CRAT or a CRUT unless the value of the remainder interest in the trust is at least 10 percent of the value of the assets contributed to the trust.

Distributions from a CRAT or CRUT are treated in the following order as: (1) ordinary income to the extent of the trust's undistributed ordinary income for that year and all prior years; (2) capital gains to the extent of the trust's undistributed capital gain for that year and all prior years; (3) other income (e.g., tax-exempt income) to the extent of the trust's undistributed other income for that year and all prior years; and (4) corpus.¹⁰⁷⁶

In general, distributions to the extent they are characterized as income are includible in the income of the beneficiary for the year that the annuity or unitrust amount is required to be distributed even though the annuity or unitrust amount is not distributed until after the close of the trust's taxable year.¹⁰⁷⁷

CRATs and CRUTs are exempt from Federal income tax for a tax year unless the trust has any unrelated business taxable income for the year. Unrelated business taxable income includes certain debt financed income. A charitable remainder trust that loses exemption from income tax for a taxable year is taxed as a regular complex trust. As such, the trust is allowed a deduction in computing taxable income for amounts required to be distributed in a taxable year, not to exceed the amount of the trust's distributable net income for the year.

Valuation of interests in a charitable remainder trust

When the grantor funds a CRAT or a CRUT, the grantor generally may take an income tax charitable deduction equal to the present value of the charitable remainder interest of the trust¹⁰⁷⁸ determined on the date of the transfer (or, in the case of a testamentary transfer, on the date of the decedent's death or an alternate valuation date). For purposes of determining the amount of the grantor's charitable contribution, the remainder interest of a CRAT or CRUT (whether a standard CRUT, a NICRUT, or NIMCRUT) is computed on the basis that an amount equal to five percent of the net fair market value of its assets (or a greater amount, if required under the terms of the trust instrument) is to be distributed each year to the income beneficiary.¹⁰⁷⁹ Thus, in the case of a NICRUT or a NIMCRUT, the net income limitation is disregarded.

The Code does not provide a rule for valuing the interests in a charitable remainder trust in the event of an early termination of the trust.

5. Prevention of transfer of certain losses from tax indifferent parties (sec. 345 of the Act and sec. 267 of the Code)

Sections 267(a)(1) and 707(b) generally disallow a deduction for a loss on the sale or exchange of property, directly or indirectly, to certain related parties or controlled partnerships. When a loss has been so disallowed, section 267(d) provides that the transferee may reduce any gain that the transferee later recognizes on a disposition of the asset by the amount of loss disallowed to the transferor.¹⁰⁸¹ Thus, the application of section 267(d) shifts the benefit of the loss to the transferee to the extent of post-sale appreciation.

A different rule applies in the case of a sale or exchange between two corporations that are members of the same controlled group. Under section 267(f), the loss to the transferor is not denied entirely, but rather is deferred until such time as the property is transferred outside the controlled group and there would be recognition of loss under consolidated return principles, or such other time as may be prescribed in regulations. While the loss is deferred, it is not transferred to another party.

Sections 267 and 707 generally operate on an item-by-item basis, so that if a transferor sells several items of separately acquired property to a related or controlled party in a single transaction, the disallowance at the time of the sale applies to each loss regardless of any gains recognized on other property in the same transfer.¹⁰⁸²

Transferee basis in gift cases

In the case of property acquired by gift, the basis generally is the basis in the hands of the transferor. If the basis exceeds the fair market value at the time of the gift, however, the basis for purposes of determining loss is the fair market value at that time.¹⁰⁸³ This rule has the same effect as the rule in section 267(d), in effect allowing the loss at the time of the transfer to offset post-transfer appreciation.

Transferee basis in certain nontaxable corporate organizations and reorganizations

In the case of certain nontaxable organizations and reorganizations, the transferee corporation takes the same basis in property that the property had in the hands of the transferor, increased by the amount of any gain recognized by the transferor.¹⁰⁸⁴ However, in cases involving the importation of a net built-in loss, the transferee's aggregate adjusted basis may not exceed the fair market value of the property immediately after the transaction.¹⁰⁸⁵ This rule applies to a transfer of property if (i) gain or loss with respect to such property is not subject to Federal income tax in the hands of the transferor immediately before the transfer and (ii) gain or loss with respect to such property is subject to such tax in the hands of the transferee immediately after such transfer.

6. Treatment of certain persons as employers with respect to motion picture projects (sec. 346 of the Act and new sec. 3512 of the Code)

The Federal Insurance Contributions Act ("FICA") imposes tax on employers and employees based on the amount of wages (as defined for FICA purposes) paid to an employee during the year.¹⁰⁸⁶ The tax imposed on the employer and on the employee is each composed of two parts: (1) the Social Security or old age, survivors, and disability insurance ("OASDI") tax equal to 6.2 percent of covered wages up to the OASDI wage base ($118,500 for 2015); and (2) the Medicare or hospital insurance ("HI") tax equal to 1.45 percent of all covered wages.¹⁰⁸⁷ The employee portion of the FICA tax generally must be withheld and remitted to the Federal government by the employer.

The Federal Unemployment Tax Act ("FUTA") imposes a tax on employers of six percent of wages up to the FUTA wage base of $7,000.¹⁰⁸⁸ An employer may take a credit against its FUTA tax liability for its contributions to a State unemployment fund and, in certain cases, an additional credit for contributions that would have been required if the employer had been subject to a higher contribution rate under State law. For purposes of the credit, the term "contributions" means payments required by State law to be made by an employer into an unemployment fund, to the extent the payments are made by the employer without being deducted or deductible from employees' remuneration.

Responsibility for employment tax compliance

FICA and FUTA tax responsibility generally rests with the person who is the employer of an employee under a common-law test that has been incorporated into Treasury regulations.¹⁰⁸⁹ Under the regulations, an employer-employee relationship generally exists if the person for whom services are performed has the right to control and direct the individual who performs the services, not only as to the result to be accomplished by the work, but also as to the details and means by which that result is accomplished. That is, an employee is subject to the will and control of the employer, not only as to what is to be done, but also as to how it is to be done. It is not necessary that the employer actually control the manner in which the services are performed; rather, it is sufficient that the employer have a right to control. Whether the requisite control exists is determined on the basis of all the relevant facts and circumstances. The test of whether an employer-employee relationship exists often arises in determining whether a worker is an employee or an independent contractor. However, the same test applies in determining whether a worker is an employee of one person or another.

In some cases, a person other than the common-law employer (a "third party") may be liable for employment taxes. In particular, if wages are paid to an employee by a third party and the third party, rather than the employer, has control of the payment of the wages, the third party is the "statutory" employer responsible for complying with applicable employment tax requirements.¹⁰⁹⁰

As indicated above, remuneration with respect to employment with a particular employer for a year is excepted from OASDI or FUTA taxes to the extent it exceeds the applicable OASDI or FUTA wage base.¹⁰⁹¹ In contrast, if an employee works for multiple employers during a year, a separate wage base generally applies in determining the employer share of OASDI tax and FUTA tax with respect to remuneration for employment with each employer, even if the wages earned with all the employers are paid by the same third party.¹⁰⁹²

A person must meet several criteria to be treated as a motion picture project employer. The person (directly or through an affiliate¹⁰⁹³) must (1) be a party to a written contract covering the services of motion picture project workers with respect to motion picture projects¹⁰⁹⁴ in the course of the trade or business of a client of the motion picture project employer, (2) be contractually obligated to pay remuneration to the motion picture project workers without regard to payment or reimbursement by any other person, (3) control the payment (within the meaning of the Code) of remuneration to the motion picture project workers and pay the remuneration from its own account or accounts, (4) be a signatory to one or more collective bargaining agreements with a labor organization that represents motion picture project workers, and (5) have treated substantially all motion picture project workers whom the person pays as employees (and not as independent contractors) during the calendar year for purposes of determining FICA, FUTA and other employment taxes. In addition, at least 80 percent of all FICA remuneration paid by the person in the calendar year must be paid to motion picture project workers.

A motion picture project worker means any individual who provides services on motion picture projects for clients of a motion picture project employer that are not affiliated with the motion picture project employer.

Unless otherwise specified by the Secretary, the Commissioner is authorized to employ such persons as the Commissioner deems proper for the administration and enforcement of the internal revenue laws and is required to issue all necessary directions, instructions, orders, and rules applicable to such persons. Unless otherwise provided by the Secretary, the Commissioner will determine and designate the posts of duty.

2. Prohibition of use of personal email for official government business (sec. 402 of the Act)

The government-wide record-management requirements are in addition to the obligations to protect the sensitive information for which the IRS is responsible. Tax information is sensitive and confidential.¹¹⁰¹ The Code imposes civil and criminal penalties to protect it from unauthorized use, inspection or disclosure.¹¹⁰² As a condition of receiving tax data, outside agencies must establish to the satisfaction of the IRS that they have adequate programs and security protocols in place to protect the data received.¹¹⁰³ Personal email computer storage systems are not inspected by the IRS for security.

Given the sensitive and confidential nature of the information handled by the IRS and the need to be accountable for all agency records, the IRS has in place policies restricting the use of email accounts.¹¹⁰⁴ Transmission of Federal tax information is only permitted outside the IRS in limited circumstances. In 2012, the IRS published a revised section of its manual in which it updated its administrative rules on e-records generally, and banned use of non-IRS/Treasury email for any governmental or official purpose.¹¹⁰⁵

3. Release of information regarding the status of certain investigations (sec. 403 of the Act and sec. 6103 of the Code)

In general

Generally, tax returns and return information ("tax information") are confidential and may not be disclosed unless authorized in the Code.¹¹⁰⁶ Return information includes data received, collected or prepared by the Secretary with respect to the determination of the existence or possible existence of liability of any person under the Code for any tax, penalty, interest, fine, forfeiture, or other imposition or offense. Information received, collected, or prepared by the Secretary with respect to a Title 26 offense is the return information of the person being investigated. Thus, generally, the Secretary may not disclose the status of an investigation to a person alleging a violation of their privacy (i.e., an unauthorized disclosure of their return information) or other offense under the Code committed by a third party.

Exceptions to the general rule

Section 6103 provides exceptions to the general rule of confidentiality, detailing permissible disclosures. Among those exceptions are disclosures to specified persons with a "material interest" in the return or return information.¹¹⁰⁷ For example, upon written request, an individual can obtain that individual's return, joint returns are available to either spouse with respect to whom the return was filed, and the administrator of an estate can obtain the return of an estate. Similarly, return information may be disclosed to those authorized to receive the return. However, the Secretary may withhold return information the disclosure of which the Secretary determines would seriously impair Federal tax administration.¹¹⁰⁸

Under section 6103(c), the Secretary may disclose a taxpayer's return or return information to such person or persons as the taxpayer may designate in a request for or consent to such disclosure. There are no restrictions placed on the recipient of tax information received pursuant to the consent of the taxpayer, and the penalties for unauthorized disclosure or inspection (discussed below) do not apply to persons receiving tax information pursuant to a taxpayer's consent.

Criminal and civil penalties (sections 7213, 7213A, and 7431)

Criminal penalties apply for the unauthorized inspection or disclosure of tax information. Willful unauthorized disclosure is a felony under section 7213 and the willful unauthorized inspection of tax information is a misdemeanor under section 7213A. Under section 7431, taxpayers may also pursue a civil cause of action for disclosures and inspections not authorized by section 6103.¹¹⁰⁹

Section 7214: Other offenses by officers and employees of the United States

Section 7214 concerns offenses by officers and employees of the United States. It provides, upon conviction, for the dismissal from office, a $10,000 fine and/or five years imprisonment of any officer or employee:

1. who is guilty of any extortion or willful oppression under color of law; or

2. who knowingly demands other or greater sums than are authorized by law, or receives any fee, compensation, or reward, except as by law prescribed, for the performance of any duty; or

3. who with intent to defeat the application of any provision of this title fails to perform any of the duties of his office or employment; or

4. who conspires or colludes with any other person to defraud the United States; or

5. who knowingly makes opportunity for any person to defraud the United States; or

6. who does or omits to do any act with intent to enable any other person to defraud the United States; or

7. who makes or signs any fraudulent entry in any book, or makes or signs any fraudulent certificate, return, or statement; or

8. who, having knowledge or information of the violation of any revenue law by any person, or of fraud committed by any person against the United States under any revenue law, fails to report, in writing, such knowledge or information to the Secretary; or

19. who demands, or accepts, or attempts to collect, directly or indirectly as payment or gift, or otherwise, any sum of money or other thing of value for the compromise, adjustment, or settlement of any charge or complaint for any violation or alleged violation of law, except as expressly authorized by law so to do.

In the discretion of the court, up to one-half of the amount of fine for a section 7214 violation may be awarded for the use of the informer. In addition, the court is to render judgment against said officer or employee for the amount of damages sustained in favor of the party injured.

Section 7214 also provides that any internal revenue officer or employee interested, directly or indirectly, in the manufacture of tobacco, snuff, cigarettes, or in the production, rectification or redistillation of distilled spirits is to be dismissed from office and each such officer or employee so interested in any such manufacture or production, rectification, or redistillation of fermented liquors is to be fined not more than $5,000.

4. Require the Secretary of the Treasury to describe administrative appeals procedures relating to adverse determinations of tax-exempt status of certain organizations (sec. 404 of the Act and sec. 7123 of the Code)

Section 501(c) describes certain organizations that are exempt from Federal income tax under section 501(a). Section 501(c) organizations include, among others, charitable organizations (501(c)(3)), social welfare organizations (501(c)(4)),¹¹¹⁰ labor organizations (501(c)(5)), and trade associations and business leagues (501(c)(6)). In addition to being exempt from Federal income tax, section 501(c)(3) organizations generally are eligible to receive tax deductible contributions. Section 501(c)(3) organizations are subject to operational rules and restrictions that do not apply to many other types of tax-exempt organizations.

Application for tax exemption

Section 501(c)(3) organizations

Section 501(c)(3) organizations (with certain exceptions) are required to seek formal recognition of tax-exempt status by filing an application with the Internal Revenue Service ("IRS") (Form 1023 or Form 1023 EZ for small organizations).¹¹¹¹ In response to the application, the IRS issues a determination letter or ruling either recognizing the applicant as tax-exempt or not. Certain organizations are not required to apply for recognition of tax-exempt status in order to qualify as tax-exempt under section 501(c)(3) but may do so. These organizations include churches, certain church-related organizations, organizations (other than private foundations) the gross receipts of which in each taxable year are normally not more than $5,000, and organizations (other than private foundations) subordinate to another tax-exempt organization that are covered by a group exemption letter.

A favorable determination by the IRS on an application for recognition of tax-exempt status will generally be retroactive to the date that the section 501(c)(3) organization was created if it files a completed Form 1023 or Form 1023 EZ within 15 months of the end of the month in which it was formed.¹¹¹² If the organization does not file either form or files a late application, it will not be treated as tax-exempt under section 501(c)(3) for any period prior to the filing of an application for recognition of tax exemption.¹¹¹³ Contributions to section 501(c)(3) organizations that are subject to the requirement that the organization apply for recognition of tax-exempt status generally are not deductible from income, gift, or estate tax until the organization receives a determination letter from the IRS.¹¹¹⁴

Information required on Form 1023 includes, but is not limited to: (1) a detailed statement of actual and proposed activities; (2) compensation and financial information regarding officers, directors, trustees, employees, and independent contractors; (3) a statement of revenues and expenses for the current year and the three preceding years (or for the years of the organization's existence, if less than four years); (4) a balance sheet for the current year; (5) a description of anticipated receipts and contemplated expenditures; (6) a copy of the articles of incorporation, trust document, or other organizational or enabling document; (7) organization bylaws (if any); and (8) information about previously filed Federal income tax and exempt organization returns, if applicable. The Form 1023 EZ requires less information and relies primarily on attestations of the applicant.

A favorable determination letter issued by the IRS will state that the application for recognition of tax exemption and supporting documents establish that the organization submitting the application meets the requirements of section 501(c)(3) and will classify the organization as either a public charity or a private foundation.

Organizations that are classified as public charities (or as private operating foundations) and not as private nonoperating foundations may cease to satisfy the conditions that entitled the organization to such status. The IRS makes an initial determination of public charity or private foundation status that is subsequently monitored by the IRS through annual return filings. The IRS periodically announces in the Internal Revenue Bulletin a list of organizations that have failed to establish, or have been unable to maintain, their status as public charities or as private operating foundations, and that become private nonoperating foundations.

If the IRS denies an organization's application for recognition of exemption under section 501(c)(3), the organization may seek a declaratory judgment regarding its tax status.¹¹¹⁵ Prior to utilizing the declaratory judgment procedure, the organization must have exhausted all administrative remedies available to it within the IRS.

Other section 501(c) organizations

Most section 501(c) organizations -- including organizations described within sections 501(c)(4) (social welfare organizations, etc.), 501(c)(5) (labor organizations, etc.), or 501(c)(6) (business leagues, etc.) -- are not required to provide notice to the Secretary that they are requesting recognition of exempt status. Rather, organizations are exempt under these provisions if they satisfy the requirements applicable to such organizations. However, in order to obtain certain benefits such as public recognition of tax-exempt status, exemption from certain State taxes, and nonprofit mailing privileges, such organizations voluntarily may request a formal recognition of exempt status by filing a Form 1024.

If such an organization voluntarily requests a determination letter by filing Form 1024 within 27 months of the end of the month in which it was formed, its determination of exempt status, once provided, generally will be effective as of the organization's date of formation.¹¹¹⁶ If, however, the organization files Form 1024 after the 27-month deadline has passed, its exempt status will be formally recognized only as of the date the organization filed Form 1024.

The declaratory judgment process available to organizations seeking exemption under section 501(c)(3) is not available to organizations seeking exemption under other subsections of the Code, including sections 501(c)(4), 501(c)(5), and 501(c)(6).

Revocation (and suspension) of exempt status

An organization that has received a favorable tax-exemption determination from the IRS generally may continue to rely on the determination as long as there is not a "material change, inconsistent with exemption, in the character, the purpose, or the method of operation of the organization, or a change in the applicable law."¹¹¹⁷ A ruling or determination letter concluding that an organization is exempt from tax may, however, be revoked or modified: (1) by notice from the IRS to the organization to which the ruling or determination letter was originally issued; (2) by enactment of legislation or ratification of a tax treaty; (3) by a decision of the United States Supreme Court; (4) by issuance of temporary or final Regulations by the Treasury Department; (5) by issuance of a revenue ruling, a revenue procedure, or other statement in the Internal Revenue Bulletin; or (6) automatically, in the event the organization fails to file a required annual return or notice for three consecutive years.¹¹¹⁸ A revocation or modification of a determination letter or ruling may be retroactive if, for example, there has been a change in the applicable law, the organization omitted or misstated a material fact, or the organization has operated in a manner materially different from that originally represented.¹¹¹⁹

The IRS generally issues a letter revoking recognition of an organization's tax-exempt status only after: (1) conducting an examination of the organization; (2) issuing a letter to the organization proposing revocation; and (3) allowing the organization to exhaust the administrative appeal rights that follow the issuance of the proposed revocation letter. In the case of a section 501(c)(3) organization, the revocation letter immediately is subject to judicial review under the declaratory judgment procedures of section 7428. To sustain a revocation of tax-exempt status under section 7428, the IRS must demonstrate that the organization no longer is entitled to exemption.

Upon revocation of tax-exemption or change in the classification of an organization (e.g., from public charity to private foundation status), the IRS publishes an announcement of such revocation or change in the Internal Revenue Bulletin. Contributions made to organizations by donors who are unaware of the revocation or change in status ordinarily will be deductible if made on or before the date of publication of the announcement.

The IRS may suspend the tax-exempt status of an organization for any period during which an organization is designated or identified by U.S. authorities as a terrorist organization or supporter of terrorism.¹¹²⁰ Such an organization also is ineligible to apply for tax exemption. The period of suspension runs from the date the organization is first designated or identified to the date when all designations or identifications with respect to the organization have been rescinded pursuant to the law or Executive Order under which the designation or identification was made. During the period of suspension, no deduction is allowed for any contribution to a terrorist organization.

Appeals of adverse determinations or revocations of exempt status

Adverse determination

If the IRS reaches the conclusion that an organization does not qualify for exempt status, the exempt organizations Rulings and Agreements unit ("EO Rulings and Agreements") will issue a proposed adverse determination letter or ruling. The proposed adverse determination will advise the taxpayer of its opportunity to appeal the determination by requesting Appeals Office consideration.¹¹²¹

If an organization protests an adverse determination, EO Rulings and Agreements (if it maintains its adverse position) will forward the protest and the application case file to the Appeals Office, which will consider the organization's appeal. If the Appeals Office agrees with EO Rulings and Agreements, it will issue a final adverse determination letter or, if a conference was requested, schedule a conference with the organization. At the end of the conference process, the Appeals Office will issue a final adverse determination letter or a favorable determination letter.¹¹²²

Prior to early 2015, certain cases were referred to EO Technical, and that unit would issue the proposed adverse determination. Under interim guidance issued on May 19, 2014, by the Acting Director, Rulings and Agreements (Exempt Organizations), an organization that receives a proposed adverse determination with regard to an application that has been transferred to EO Technical (or its successor) may request a conference with EO Technical in addition to requesting Appeals Office Consideration.¹¹²³ Prior to that time, however, a determination letter issued on the basis of technical advice from EO Technical could not be appealed to the Appeals Office on issues that were the subject of the technical advice.¹¹²⁴ The procedure described in the interim guidance has since been added to the IRS Revenue Procedure relating to exempt status determinations.¹¹²⁵

Revocation or modification of a determination

As stated above, a determination letter or ruling recognizing exemption may be revoked or modified. In the case of a revocation or modification of a determination letter or ruling, the appeal and conference procedures are essentially the same as described above in connection with initial determinations of exempt status.¹¹²⁶

1. the initial qualification or continuing classification of the organization as exempt from tax under section 501(a);

2. the initial qualification or continuing classification of the organization as an organization described in section 170(c)(2) (generally describing certain corporations, trusts, community chests, funds, and foundations that are eligible recipients of tax deductible contributions);

3. the initial or continuing classification of the organization as a private foundation under section 509(a); or

4. the initial or continuing classification of the organization as a private operating foundation under section 4942(j)(3).

5. Require section 501(c)(4) organizations to provide notice of formation (sec. 405 of the Act, secs. 6033 and 6652 of the Code, and new sec. 506 of the Code)¹¹²⁷

Section 501(c)(4) provides tax exemption for civic leagues or organizations not organized for profit but operated exclusively for the promotion of social welfare, or certain local associations of employees, provided that no part of the net earnings of the entity inures to the benefit of any private shareholder or individual. An organization is operated exclusively for the promotion of social welfare if it is engaged primarily in promoting in some way the common good and general welfare of the people of a community.¹¹²⁸ The promotion of social welfare does not include direct or indirect participation or intervention in political campaigns on behalf of or in opposition to any candidate for public office; however, social welfare organizations are permitted to engage in political activity so long as the organization remains engaged primarily in activities that promote social welfare. The lobbying activities of a social welfare organization generally are not limited. An organization is not operated primarily for the promotion of social welfare if its primary activity is operating a social club for the benefit, pleasure, or recreation of its members, or is carrying on a business with the general public in a manner similar to organizations that are operated for profit.

Application for tax exemption

Section 501(c)(3) organizations

Section 501(c)(3) organizations (with certain exceptions) are required to seek formal recognition of tax-exempt status by filing an application with the IRS (Form 1023).¹¹²⁹ In response to the application, the IRS issues a determination letter or ruling either recognizing the applicant as tax-exempt or not. Certain organizations are not required to apply for recognition of tax-exempt status in order to qualify as tax-exempt under section 501(c)(3) but may do so. These organizations include churches, certain church-related organizations, organizations (other than private foundations) the gross receipts of which in each taxable year are normally not more than $5,000, and organizations (other than private foundations) subordinate to another tax-exempt organization that are covered by a group exemption letter.

A favorable determination by the IRS on an application for recognition of tax-exempt status will generally be retroactive to the date that the section 501(c)(3) organization was created if it files a completed Form 1023 or Form 1023 EZ within 15 months of the end of the month in which it was formed.¹¹³⁰ If the organization does not file either form or files a late application, it will not be treated as tax-exempt under section 501(c)(3) for any period prior to the filing of an application for recognition of tax exemption.¹¹³¹ Contributions to section 501(c)(3) organizations that are subject to the requirement that the organization apply for recognition of tax-exempt status generally are not deductible from income, gift, or estate tax until the organization receives a determination letter from the IRS.¹¹³²

Information required on Form 1023 includes, but is not limited to: (1) a detailed statement of actual and proposed activities; (2) compensation and financial information regarding officers, directors, trustees, employees, and independent contractors; (3) a statement of revenues and expenses for the current year and the three preceding years (or for the years of the organization's existence, if less than four years); (4) a balance sheet for the current year; (5) a description of anticipated receipts and contemplated expenditures; (6) a copy of the articles of incorporation, trust document, or other organizational or enabling document; (7) organization bylaws (if any); and (8) information about previously filed Federal income tax and exempt organization returns, if applicable. The Form 1023 EZ requires less information and relies primarily on attestations of the applicant.

A favorable determination letter issued by the IRS will state that the application for recognition of tax exemption and supporting documents establish that the organization submitting the application meets the requirements of section 501(c)(3) and will classify the organization as either a public charity or a private foundation.

Organizations that are classified as public charities (or as private operating foundations) and not as private nonoperating foundations may cease to satisfy the conditions that entitled the organization to such status. The IRS makes an initial determination of public charity or private foundation status that is subsequently monitored by the IRS through annual return filings. The IRS periodically announces in the Internal Revenue Bulletin a list of organizations that have failed to establish, or have been unable to maintain, their status as public charities or as private operating foundations, and that become private nonoperating foundations.

If the IRS denies an organization's application for recognition of exemption under section 501(c)(3), the organization may seek a declaratory judgment regarding its tax status.¹¹³³ Prior to utilizing the declaratory judgment procedure, the organization must have exhausted all administrative remedies available to it within the IRS.

Other section 501(c) organizations

Most section 501(c) organizations -- including organizations described within sections 501(c)(4) (social welfare organizations, etc.), 501(c)(5) (labor organizations, etc.), or 501(c)(6) (business leagues, etc.) -- are not required to provide notice to the Secretary that they are requesting recognition of exempt status. Rather, organizations are exempt under these provisions if they satisfy the requirements applicable to such organizations. However, in order to obtain certain benefits such as public recognition of tax-exempt status, exemption from certain State taxes, and nonprofit mailing privileges, such organizations voluntarily may request a formal recognition of exempt status by filing a Form 1024.

If such an organization voluntarily requests a determination letter by filing Form 1024 within 27 months of the end of the month in which it was formed, its determination of exempt status, once provided, generally will be effective as of the organization's date of formation.¹¹³⁴ If, however, the organization files Form 1024 after the 27-month deadline has passed, its exempt status will be formally recognized only as of the date the organization filed Form 1024.

The declaratory judgment process available to organizations seeking exemption under section 501(c)(3) is not available to organizations seeking exemption under other subsections of the Code, including sections 501(c)(4), 501(c)(5), and 501(c)(6).

Revocation (and suspension) of exempt status

An organization that has received a favorable tax-exemption determination from the IRS generally may continue to rely on the determination as long as "there are no substantial changes in the organization's character, purposes, or methods of operation."¹¹³⁵ A ruling or determination letter concluding that an organization is exempt from tax may, however, be revoked or modified: (1) by notice from the IRS to the organization to which the ruling or determination letter was originally issued; (2) by enactment of legislation or ratification of a tax treaty; (3) by a decision of the United States Supreme Court; (4) by issuance of temporary or final Regulations by the Treasury Department; (5) by issuance of a revenue ruling, a revenue procedure, or other statement in the Internal Revenue Bulletin; or (6) automatically, in the event the organization fails to file a required annual return or notice for three consecutive years.¹¹³⁶ A revocation or modification of a determination letter or ruling may be retroactive if, for example, there has been a change in the applicable law, the organization omitted or misstated a material fact, or the organization has operated in a manner materially different from that originally represented.¹¹³⁷

The IRS generally issues a letter revoking recognition of an organization's tax-exempt status only after: (1) conducting an examination of the organization; (2) issuing a letter to the organization proposing revocation; and (3) allowing the organization to exhaust the administrative appeal rights that follow the issuance of the proposed revocation letter. In the case of a section 501(c)(3) organization, the revocation letter immediately is subject to judicial review under the declaratory judgment procedures of section 7428. To sustain a revocation of tax-exempt status under section 7428, the IRS must demonstrate that the organization no longer is entitled to exemption.

Upon revocation of tax-exemption or change in the classification of an organization (e.g., from public charity to private foundation status), the IRS publishes an announcement of such revocation or change in the Internal Revenue Bulletin. Contributions made to organizations by donors who are unaware of the revocation or change in status ordinarily will be deductible if made on or before the date of publication of the announcement.

The IRS may suspend the tax-exempt status of an organization for any period during which an organization is designated or identified by U.S. authorities as a terrorist organization or supporter of terrorism.¹¹³⁸ Such an organization also is ineligible to apply for tax exemption. The period of suspension runs from the date the organization is first designated or identified to the date when all designations or identifications with respect to the organization have been rescinded pursuant to the law or Executive Order under which the designation or identification was made. During the period of suspension, no deduction is allowed for any contribution to a terrorist organization.

The provision amends section 6652(c) (which provides for penalties in the event of certain failures to file an exempt organization return or disclosure) to impose penalties for failure to file the notice required under the proposal. An organization that fails to file a notice within 60 days of its formation (or, if an extension is granted for reasonable cause, by the deadline established by the Secretary) is subject to a penalty equal to $20 for each day during which the failure occurs, up to a maximum of $5,000. In the event such a penalty is imposed, the Secretary may make a written demand on the organization specifying a date by which the notice must be provided. If any person fails to comply with such a demand on or before the date specified in the demand, a penalty of $20 is imposed for each day the failure continues, up to a maximum of $5,000.

With its first annual information return (Form 990, Form 990EZ, or Form 990-N) filed after providing the notice described above, a section 501(c)(4) organization must provide such information as the Secretary may require, and in the form prescribed by the Secretary, to support its qualification as an organization described in section 501(c)(4). The Secretary is not required to issue a determination letter following the organization's filing of the expanded first annual information return.

A section 501(c)(4) organization that desires additional certainty regarding its qualification as an organization described in section 501(c)(4) may file a request for a determination, together with the required user fee, with the Secretary. Such a request is in addition to, not in lieu of, filing the required notice described above. It is intended that such a request for a determination be submitted on a new form (separate from Form 1024, which may continue to be used by certain other organizations) that clearly states that filing such a request is optional. The request for a determination is treated as an application subject to public inspection and disclosure under sections 6104(a) and (d).

Organizations organized on or before the date of enactment that have not filed an application for exemption (Form 1024) or annual information return or notice (under section 6033) on or before the date of enactment must provide the notice required under the provision within 180 days of the date of enactment.

6. Declaratory judgments for section 501(c)(4) and other exempt organizations (sec. 406 of the Act and sec. 7428 of the Code)¹¹³⁹

Present law authorizes an organization to seek a declaratory judgment regarding its tax-exempt status as a remedy if the IRS denies its application for recognition of exemption under section 501(c)(3), fails to act on such an application, or informs a section 501(c)(3) organization that it is considering revoking or adversely modifying its tax-exempt status.¹¹⁴¹ The right to seek a declaratory judgment arises in the case of a dispute involving a determination by the IRS with respect to: (1) the initial qualification or continuing qualification of an organization as a charitable organization for tax exemption purposes or for charitable contribution deduction purposes; (2) the initial classification or continuing classification of an organization as a private foundation; (3) the initial classification or continuing classification of an organization as a private operating foundation; or (4) the failure of the IRS to make a determination with respect to (1), (2), or (3).¹¹⁴² A "determination" in this context generally means a final decision by the IRS affecting the tax qualification of a charitable organization. Section 7428 vests jurisdiction over controversies involving such a determination in the U.S. District Court for the District of Columbia, the U.S. Court of Federal Claims, and the U.S. Tax Court.¹¹⁴³

Prior to utilizing the declaratory judgment procedure, an organization must have exhausted all administrative remedies available to it within the IRS.¹¹⁴⁴ For the first 270 days after a request for a determination is made and before the IRS informs the organization of its decision, an organization is deemed not to have exhausted its administrative remedies. If no determination is made during the 270-day period, the organization may initiate an action for declaratory judgment after the period has elapsed. If, however, the IRS makes an adverse determination during the 270-day period, an organization may immediately seek declaratory relief. The 270-day period does not begin with respect to applications for recognition of tax-exempt status until the date a substantially completed application is submitted.

Under present law, a non-charity (i.e., an organization not described in section 501(c)(3)) may not seek a declaratory judgment with respect to an IRS determination regarding its tax-exempt status. In general, such an organization must petition the U.S. Tax Court for relief following the issuance of a notice of deficiency or pay any tax owed and file a refund action in Federal district court or the U.S. Court of Federal Claims.

7. Termination of employment of Internal Revenue Service employees for taking official actions for political purposes (sec. 407 of the Act and sec. 1203(b) of the Internal Revenue Service Restructuring and Reform Act of 1998)

The Act provides non-delegable authority to the Commissioner to determine that mitigating factors exist, that, in the Commissioner's sole discretion, mitigate against terminating the employee. The Act also provides that the Commissioner, in his sole discretion, may establish a procedure to determine whether an individual should be referred for such a determination by the Commissioner. The Treasury Inspector General ("IG") is required to track employee terminations and terminations that would have occurred had the Commissioner not determined that there were mitigation factors and include such information in the IG's annual report to Congress.

8. Gift tax not to apply to gifts made to certain exempt organizations (sec. 408 of the Act and sec. 2501(a) of the Code)¹¹⁴⁶

The Code imposes a tax for each calendar year on the transfer of property by gift during such year by any individual, whether a resident or nonresident of the United States.¹¹⁴⁷ The amount of taxable gifts for a calendar year is determined by subtracting from the total amount of gifts made during the year: (1) the gift tax annual exclusion (described below); and (2) allowable deductions.

Gift tax for the current taxable year is determined by: (1) computing a tentative tax on the combined amount of all taxable gifts for the current and all prior calendar years using the common gift tax and estate tax rate table; (2) computing a tentative tax only on all prior-year gifts; (3) subtracting the tentative tax on prior-year gifts from the tentative tax computed for all years to arrive at the portion of the total tentative tax attributable to current-year gifts; and, finally, (4) subtracting the amount of unified credit not consumed by prior-year gifts.

Unified credit (exemption) and tax rates

Unified credit

A unified credit is available with respect to taxable transfers by gift and at death.¹¹⁴⁸ The unified credit offsets tax, computed using the applicable estate and gift tax rates, on a specified amount of transfers, referred to as the applicable exclusion amount, or exemption amount. The exemption amount was set at $5 million for 2011 and is indexed for inflation for later years.¹¹⁴⁹ For 2015, the inflation-indexed exemption amount is $5.43 million.¹¹⁵⁰ Exemption used during life to offset taxable gifts reduces the amount of exemption that remains at death to offset the value of a decedent's estate. An election is available under which exemption that is not used by a decedent may be used by the decedent's surviving spouse (exemption portability).

Common tax rate table

A common tax-rate table with a top marginal tax rate of 40 percent is used to compute gift tax and estate tax. The 40-percent rate applies to transfers in excess of $1 million (to the extent not exempt). Because the exemption amount currently shields the first $5.43 million in gifts and bequests from tax, transfers in excess of the exemption amount generally are subject to tax at the highest marginal 40-percent rate.

Transfers by gift

The gift tax applies to a transfer by gift regardless of whether: (1) the transfer is made outright or in trust; (2) the gift is direct or indirect; or (3) the property is real or personal, tangible or intangible.¹¹⁵¹ For gift tax purposes, the value of a gift of property is the fair market value of the property at the time of the gift.¹¹⁵² Where property is transferred for less than full consideration, the amount by which the value of the property exceeds the value of the consideration is considered a gift and is included in computing the total amount of a taxpayer's gifts for a calendar year.¹¹⁵³

For a gift to occur, a donor generally must relinquish dominion and control over donated property. For example, if a taxpayer transfers assets to a trust established for the benefit of his or her children, but retains the right to revoke the trust, the taxpayer may not have made a completed gift, because the taxpayer has retained dominion and control over the transferred assets. A completed gift made in trust, on the other hand, often is treated as a gift to the trust beneficiaries.

By reason of statute, certain transfers are not treated as transfers by gift for gift tax purposes. These include, for example, certain transfers for educational and medical purposes¹¹⁵⁴ and transfers to section 527 political organizations.¹¹⁵⁵

Under present law, there is no explicit exception from the gift tax for a transfer to a tax-exempt organization described in section 501(c)(4) (generally, social welfare organizations), 501(c)(5) (generally, labor and certain other organizations), or section 501(c)(6) (generally, trade associations and business leagues).

Taxable gifts

As stated above, the amount of a taxpayer's taxable gifts for the year is determined by subtracting from the total amount of the taxpayer's gifts for the year the gift tax annual exclusion and any available deductions.

Gift tax annual exclusion

Under present law, donors of lifetime gifts are provided an annual exclusion of $14,000 per donee in 2015 (indexed for inflation from the 1997 annual exclusion amount of $10,000) for gifts of present interests in property during the taxable year.¹¹⁵⁶ If the non-donor spouse consents to split the gift with the donor spouse, then the annual exclusion is $28,000 per donee in 2015. In general, unlimited transfers between U.S. spouses are permitted without imposition of a gift tax. Special rules apply to the contributions to a qualified tuition program ("529 Plan") including an election to treat a contribution that exceeds the annual exclusion as a contribution made ratably over a five-year period beginning with the year of the contribution.¹¹⁵⁷

Transfers between spouses

A 100-percent marital deduction generally is permitted for the value of property transferred between U.S. spouses.¹¹⁵⁸

Transfers to charity

Contributions to section 501(c)(3) charitable organizations and certain other organizations may be deducted from the value of a gift for Federal gift tax purposes.¹¹⁵⁹ The effect of the deduction generally is to remove the full fair market value of assets transferred to charity from the gift tax base; unlike the income tax charitable deduction, there are no percentage limits on the deductible amount. A charitable contribution of a partial interest in property, such as a remainder or future interest, generally is not deductible for gift tax purposes.¹¹⁶⁰

9. Extend the Internal Revenue Service authority to require a truncated Social Security Number ("SSN") on Form W-2 (sec. 409 of the Act and sec. 6051 of the Code)

Other statements provided to taxpayers, such as Forms 1099, generally issued to any individual or unincorporated business paid in excess of $600 per calendar year for services rendered, are subject to rules under section 6109 dealing with identifying numbers. Section 6109 requires that the filer provide the taxpayer's "identifying number" which is an individual's SSN except as otherwise specified in regulations.¹¹⁶¹ Accordingly, for Forms 1099, the Department of the Treasury has the authority to require or permit filers to use a number other than a taxpayer's SSN, including a truncated SSN (the last four numbers of the SSN).

10. Clarification of enrolled agent credentials (sec. 410 of the Act)

11. Partnership audit rules (sec. 411 of the Act and secs. 6225, 6226, 6234, 6235, and 6031 of the Code)

An imputed underpayment of tax with respect to a partnership adjustment for any reviewed year is determined by netting all adjustments of items of income, gain, loss, or deduction and multiplying the net amount by the highest rate of Federal income tax applicable either to individuals or to corporations that is in effect for the reviewed year.¹¹⁶⁸ Any adjustments to items of credit are taken into account as an increase or decrease of the product of this multiplication. Any net increase or decrease in loss is treated as a decrease or increase, respectively, in income. Netting is done taking into account applicable limitations, restrictions, and special rules under present law.

Modification of an imputed underpayment generally

If the partnership disagrees with the computation of the imputed underpayment during an administrative proceeding, it may seek modification of the computation, subject to the approval of the Secretary.¹¹⁶⁹ Modification procedures permit redetermination of the imputed underpayment (1) to take into account amounts paid with amended returns filed by reviewed year partners, (2) to disregard the portion allocable to a tax-exempt partner, and (3) to take into account a rate of tax lower than the highest tax rate for individuals or corporations for the reviewed year. In addition, regulations or guidance may provide for additional procedures to modify imputed underpayment amounts on the basis of other necessary or appropriate factors. In the case of a publicly traded partnership, such other appropriate factors could include taking into account the present-law section 469(k) rule requiring that deductions that exceed income (passive activity losses) be carried forward and applied against income from the publicly traded partnership, not against other income of the partners.

Modifying an imputed underpayment based on applicable highest tax rates

The partnership may seek to modify an imputed underpayment amount by demonstrating that a lower tax rate is applicable to partners.¹¹⁷⁰ For example, the partnership may demonstrate that a portion of an imputed underpayment is allocable to a partner that is a C corporation, and for that C corporation partner, the highest marginal rate of Federal income tax (35 percent in 2015, for example) for ordinary income for the reviewed year is lower than the highest marginal rate of Federal income tax for individuals (39.6 percent in 2015, for example). The statutory language refers to ordinary income but does not refer to capital gain of a corporation, which is generally subject to tax at the same rate as ordinary income of a corporation.

Limitations period for partnership adjustments

In general, the Secretary may adjust an item on a partnership return at any time within three years of the date a return is filed (or the return due date, if the return is not filed) or an administrative adjustment request is made. The time within which the adjustment is made by the Secretary may be later if a notice of proposed adjustment¹¹⁷¹ is issued, because the issuance of a notice of proposed partnership adjustment begins the running of a period of 270 days in which the partnership may seek a modification of the imputed underpayment. Although the partnership generally is limited to 270 days from the issuance of that notice to seek a modification of the imputed underpayment, extensions may be permitted by the IRS. During the 270-day period, the Secretary may not issue a notice of final partnership adjustment.

After a notice of proposed adjustment resulting in an imputed underpayment is issued, the final partnership notice may be issued no later than either the date which is 270 days after the partnership has completed its response seeking a revision of an imputed underpayment, or, if the partnership provides an incomplete or no response, no later than 270 days after the date of a notice of proposed adjustment.

Forum for judicial review

A partnership may seek judicial review of a notice of final partnership adjustment within 90 days after the notice is mailed, in the U.S. Tax Court, the Court of Federal Claims or a U.S. district court for the district in which the partnership has its principal place of business. The statutory language refers to the Claims Court rather than the Court of Federal Claims.

Restriction on authority to amend partner information statements

Partner information returns (currently Schedules K-1) required to be furnished by the partnership may not be amended after the due date of the partnership return to which the partner information returns relate.¹¹⁷² A conforming amendment inadvertently strikes newly added language relating to the restriction on amended partner information statements.

Modifying an imputed underpayment based on applicable highest tax rates

The provision strikes the reference to ordinary income of corporations in the rule that provides procedures for modification of an imputed underpayment to make clear that a lower rate of tax may be taken into account in the case of either capital gain or ordinary income of a partner that is a C corporation.

Modifying an imputed underpayment based on certain passive losses of publicly traded partnerships

Under the provision, certain section 469(k) passive activity losses can reduce the imputed underpayment of a publicly traded partnership under the centralized system. The imputed underpayment can be determined without regard to the portion of the underpayment that the partnership demonstrates is attributable to (i.e., would be offset by) specified passive activity losses attributable to a specified partner. The amount of the specified passive activity loss is concomitantly decreased, and the partnership takes the net decrease into account as an adjustment in the adjustment year with respect to the specified partners to which the net decrease relates.

A specified passive activity loss for any specified partner of a publicly traded partnership means the lesser of the section 469(k) passive activity loss of that partner which is separately determined with respect to the partnership (1) for the partner's taxable year in which or with which the reviewed year of the partnership ends, or (2) for the partner's taxable year in which or with which the adjustment year of the partnership ends. A specified partner is a person who continuously meets each of three requirements for the period starting with the partner's taxable year in which or with which the partnership reviewed year ends through the partner's taxable year in which or with which the partnership adjustment year ends. These three requirements are that the person is a partner of the publicly traded partnership; the person is an individual, estate, trust, closely held C corporation, or personal service corporation; and the person has a specified passive activity loss with respect to the publicly traded partnership.

Limitations period for partnership adjustments

The provision clarifies the unintended conflict between section 6231 (barring the Secretary from issuing the notice of final partnership adjustment earlier than the expiration of the 270 days after the notice of a proposed adjustment) and section 6235 (requiring that a notice of final partnership adjustment be filed no later than 270 days after the notice of proposed adjustment in the case of a partnership that does not seek modification of the imputed underpayment). As amended, section 6235 provides that a notice of final partnership adjustment to a partnership that does not seek modification of an underpayment in response to a notice of proposed adjustment may be issued up to 330 days (plus any additional number of days that were agreed upon as an extension of time for taxpayer response) after the notice of proposed adjustment.

Forum for judicial review

The provision correctly identifies the Court of Federal Claims in section 6234.

The provision adds a cross reference within the alternative payment rules¹¹⁷³ to the time period for seeking judicial review,¹¹⁷⁴ clarifying that judicial review is available to a partnership that has made the election¹¹⁷⁵ under the alternative payment rules.

Restriction on authority to amend partner information statements

The provision corrects the conforming amendment so that it correctly strikes the last sentence of section 6031(b) under prior law, which sentence related to repealed provisions on electing large partnerships.

2. Small tax case election for interest abatement cases (sec. 422 of the Act and secs. 6404 and 7463 of the Code)

3. Venue for appeal of spousal relief and collection cases (sec. 423 of the Act and sec. 7482 of the Code)

Venue for appellate review of Tax Court decisions by the U.S. Court of Appeals is determined for certain specified cases by the taxpayer's legal residence, principal place of business, or principal office or agency is located. A default rule prescribes that venue for review of all other cases lies in the U.S. Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia.¹¹⁸³ Cases involving relief from joint or several liability or collection by lien and levy are not among those expressly identified as appealable to the circuit of residence or principal business/office. However, routine practice since enactment, on the part of both the litigants and the courts, has been to treat such cases as appealable to the U.S. Court of Appeals for the circuit corresponding to the petitioner's residence or principal business or office.

4. Suspension of running of period for filing petition of spousal relief and collection cases (sec. 424 of the Act and secs. 6015 and 6330 of the Code)

Section 6330 disallows levies to be made on property or rights to property unless the Secretary has notified the taxpayer in writing of their right to a hearing before such levy is made. Under subsection (d), once a determination is made, the taxpayer may appeal the determination to the Tax Court within 30 days. Under subsection (e), the levy actions which are the subject of the requested hearing and the running of any relevant period of limitations¹¹⁸⁵ are suspended for the period during which such hearing and appeals are pending.

Neither section 6015 or 6330 includes a rule similar to the co ordination rule found in the general provisions regarding filing a petition with the Tax Court for taxpayers in bankruptcy.¹¹⁸⁶ Under that rule, the period of the automatic stay in bankruptcy is disregarded, and the taxpayer may file its petition with the Tax Court within 60 days after the stay is lifted.

The provision also adds to existing rules a suspension of the running of a period of limitations on filing a petition as described in section 6330(e) for a taxpayer who is prohibited from filing such a petition under U.S.C. Title 11. The suspension is for the period during which the taxpayer is prohibited from filing such a petition and for 30 days thereafter.

5. Application of Federal rules of evidence (sec. 425 of the Act and sec. 7453 of the Code)

The Federal Rules of Evidence¹¹⁹⁰ are the applicable rules of evidence for all Federal district courts in all judicial districts, including the District of Columbia. In addition, the United States Code includes specific rules and procedures for evidence.¹¹⁹¹ Rule 143 of the Rules of Practice and Procedure promulgated by the Tax Court, states "those rules include the rules of evidence in the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure and any rules of evidence generally applicable in the Federal courts (including the United States District Court for the District of Columbia)."

Unlike the prescriptions of Title 28 for Article III courts and other Article I courts, there is no statutory provision related to complaints regarding the conduct or disability of a Tax Court Judge, Senior Judge, or Special Trial Judge, although they voluntarily agree to follow the rules contained in the Code of Conduct for U.S. Judges.¹¹⁹⁶

7. Administration, judicial conference, and fees (sec. 432 of the Act; Code sec. 7473 and new secs. 7470 and 7470A of the Code)

Federal courts, including Article I courts such as the Court of Appeals for Veterans Claims, have express statutory authority to conduct an annual judicial conference.¹¹⁹⁸ The Tax Court has con ducted periodic judicial conferences in order to consider the business of the Tax Court and to discuss means of improving the administration of justice within the Tax Court's jurisdiction. The Tax Court's judicial conferences have been attended by persons admitted to practice before the Tax Court, including representatives of the Internal Revenue Service, the Department of Justice, private practitioners, low-income taxpayer clinics, and by other persons active in the legal profession.

Federal courts are authorized to deposit certain court fees into a special fund of the Treasury to be available to offset funds appropriated for the operation and maintenance of the courts.¹¹⁹⁹ The Tax Court's filing fees are statutorily set at "not in excess of $60" and are covered into the Treasury as miscellaneous receipts.¹²⁰⁰

The provision amends the Code to provide the Tax Court with express authority to conduct an annual judicial conference and charge a reasonable registration fee.

The provision amends the Code to authorize the Tax Court to deposit certain fees into a special fund of the Treasury to be available to offset funds appropriated for the operation and maintenance of the Tax Court.

As judges of an Article I court, Tax Court judges do not have life time tenure nor do they enjoy the salary protection afforded judges in Article III courts. They are subject to removal only for cause, by the President.¹²⁰³ The authority to remove a judge for cause was the basis for a recent unsuccessful challenge to an order of the Tax Court, in which the taxpayer invoked the separation of powers doctrine to argue that the removal authority is an unconstitutional interference of the executive branch with the exercise of judicial powers. In rejecting that challenge, the Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia held in Kuretski v. Commissioner¹²⁰⁴ that the Tax Court is an independent Executive Branch agency, while acknowledging that the Tax Court is a "Court of Law" for purposes of the Appointments Clause.¹²⁰⁵